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Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. Recurring crushing chest pain
- B. Needing an IV for surgery in 5 minutes
- C. Needing PCA morphine for pain control post-hysterectomy
- D. Waiting to get back to bed after sitting in a chair for 30 minutes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client presenting with recurring crushing chest pain should be seen first as this symptom could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI), which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Assessing and managing potential cardiac issues take priority over other concerns like needing an IV for surgery, pain control post-hysterectomy, or assistance with mobility. While all clients require care, addressing the chest pain promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
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Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?
- A. 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure
- B. 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy
- C. 28-year-old post-partum crying weekly
- D. 50-year-old client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.
A patient has recently been prescribed Lidocaine Hydrochloride. Which of the following symptoms may occur with an overdose?
- A. Memory loss and lack of appetite
- B. Confusion and fatigue
- C. Heightened reflexes
- D. Tinnitus and spasticity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Confusion and fatigue.' Lidocaine Hydrochloride, when taken in excess, can lead to symptoms such as confusion and fatigue. It affects the central nervous system, leading to these cognitive and physical impairments. Choice A ('Memory loss and lack of appetite') is incorrect because memory loss is not a common symptom of Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose, and lack of appetite is not a typical effect. Choice C ('Heightened reflexes') is incorrect as Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose usually depresses reflexes rather than heightening them. Choice D ('Tinnitus and spasticity') is incorrect as tinnitus and spasticity are not commonly associated with Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose.
The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?
- A. Muscle tetany
- B. Syncope
- C. Numbness
- D. Anxiety
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.
The manic client has just interrupted the group session with the counselor for the 4th time, explaining that she already knows this information on 'dealing with others when you are down' and constantly gets up and goes to the front. What should the nurse do at this time?
- A. Engage the client to walk with you to make another pot of coffee
- B. Ask the client to reflect on their behavior to determine if it is appropriate
- C. Ask the group to tell the client how they feel when she interrupts
- D. Instruct the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud to get rid of some energy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, it is important to redirect the client's energy and focus. Engaging the client in a purposeful activity like making another pot of coffee can help distract them from disruptive behavior and provide an outlet for their excess energy. This choice also helps in maintaining a therapeutic environment by involving the client in a constructive task. Asking the client to reflect on their behavior (Choice B) might not be effective during a manic episode as the client may not be in a state to critically analyze their actions. Asking the group to tell the client how they feel (Choice C) can escalate the situation and may not be appropriate in this context. Instructing the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud (Choice D) may not address the underlying issue of disruptive behavior and may not be suitable for the current situation.
Following a thyroidectomy, a client is complaining of shortness of breath (SOB) and neck pressure. Which nursing action is the best response?
- A. Stay with the client, remove the dressing, and elevate the head of bed.
- B. Call a code, open the trach set, and position the client supine.
- C. Have the client say "EEE"? to check for laryngeal integrity.
- D. Immediately go to the nurse's station and call the physician
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct! The client is displaying signs of respiratory distress after a thyroidectomy. By staying with the client, removing the dressing around the neck, and elevating the head of the bed, the nurse can assess the airway and breathing status more effectively. This immediate action can help alleviate any potential airway obstruction. Choice B is incorrect because calling a code and opening the trach set without initial assessment and basic interventions may delay necessary actions. Choice C is incorrect as having the client say "EEE"? is not as immediate or effective in addressing the respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect as leaving the client alone and calling the physician without providing immediate assistance can be detrimental in a situation of potential airway compromise.