Nokea
Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?
- A. A client with GI bleeding who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7 grams.
- B. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl today and had 160 mg/dl yesterday.
- C. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.
- D. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count < 500 today and had 2,000 yesterday.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with an absolute neutrophil count < 500 is at high risk for serious infections due to severe neutropenia. Neutrophils are crucial for fighting infections, and a low count puts the client at immediate risk. Therefore, intervention is required to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice A: A hemoglobin of 7 grams in a client with GI bleeding receiving a blood transfusion indicates anemia, but it does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic.
Choice B: A fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl in a client with pancreatitis is elevated but does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic or experiencing complications.
Choice C: A bilirubin level 4 times the normal value in a jaundiced client with hepatitis is concerning but does not require immediate intervention unless there are signs of severe liver dysfunction or complications.
You may also like to solve these questions
Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
- A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
- B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
- C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
- D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy. Dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a distended abdomen indicate a potential risk for aspiration or impaired gastrointestinal motility. Continuous tube feeding may worsen these conditions. The nurse should question this prescription to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not immediate concerns for dysphagia and bowel issues. Total parenteral nutrition, nasogastric tube connected to suction, and metoclopramide can be appropriate interventions for nutritional support and bowel motility in this scenario.
Which intervention should the nurse implement to enhance the efficacy of the client's asthma medication therapy?
- A. Administer the albuterol inhaler before other inhaled medications.
- B. Provide oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters/minute.
- C. Encourage the client to drink three liters of fluids daily.
- D. Keep the client upright during nebulizer therapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the albuterol inhaler before other inhaled medications. Administering albuterol first helps open airways, allowing better absorption of subsequent medications. Option B does not directly enhance medication efficacy. Option C promotes hydration but doesn't affect medication efficacy. Option D does not specifically enhance medication therapy.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
- B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
- D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. The rationale is that metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further decrease heart rate. With a low apical pulse of 58 beats/minute, administering metoprolol can potentially cause bradycardia or further slow down the heart rate to dangerous levels. Holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider allows for further assessment and potential adjustment of the dosage or consideration of alternative treatments.
Incorrect choices:
A: Administering the medication as prescribed can lead to bradycardia and potential harm to the client.
C: Giving half the prescribed dose and rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes can still lead to further bradycardia and potential harm.
D: Administering the medication and then rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes is not appropriate as the initial pulse rate is already low, and waiting to recheck could lead to adverse effects before intervention.
When evaluating a client's understanding of wearing a Holter monitor, which statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understands the procedure?
- A. I must record any symptoms occurring with my activity.
- B. I am not looking forward to staying in bed for 24 hours.
- C. I really am dreading the frequent blood drawing.
- D. I know that I shouldn't get close to my microwave oven.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates the client understands the purpose of wearing a Holter monitor—to record symptoms related to activity. This shows the client comprehends the importance of monitoring symptoms accurately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not relate to the purpose of wearing a Holter monitor or indicate an understanding of the procedure. B focuses on personal preference, C on unrelated procedures, and D on irrelevant safety precautions.
In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
- B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
- C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100‚° F.
- D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten. This is crucial because the Braden scale assesses the client's risk for developing pressure ulcers. A score of ten indicates a very high risk, requiring frequent repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers.
Choice A is incorrect because 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities indicates fluid overload, not directly related to turning schedule planning.
Choice C is incorrect because warm, dry skin with a fever of 100‚° F suggests a possible infection, but does not affect the need for turning schedule planning.
Choice D is incorrect as hypoactive bowel sounds and infrequent bowel movements are related to gastrointestinal function, not directly impacting the turning schedule.