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Which data found on a patient’s health history would place her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
- A. Ovarian cyst 2 years ago
- B. Recurrent pelvic infections
- C. Use of oral contraceptives for 5 years
- D. Heavy menstrual flow of 4 days’ duration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent pelvic infections. Pelvic infections can lead to scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Ovarian cysts and oral contraceptives are not directly linked to ectopic pregnancies. Heavy menstrual flow does not inherently increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
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The clinic nurse is caring for a 42-year-old male oncology patient. He complains of extreme fatigue and weakness after his first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best reassure this patient?
- A. These symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your laboratory and x-ray studies.
- B. These symptoms are part of your disease and are an unfortunately inevitable part of living with cancer.
- C. Try not to be concerned about these symptoms. Every patient feels this way after having radiation therapy.
- D. Even though it is uncomfortable, this is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it acknowledges the patient's symptoms, reassures monitoring, and addresses the cause. It validates his experience while offering a proactive approach. Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the patient's symptoms and can cause distress. Choice C is incorrect because it generalizes the patient's experience and lacks individualized care. Choice D is incorrect as it may give false hope and oversimplifies the situation. A provides the best balance of empathy and information for the patient's well-being.
The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.
- A. Rate of growth
- B. Ability to cause death
- C. Size of cells
- D. Cell contents E) Ability to spread
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.
A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is N R I G B.C M U S N T O based on which of the following?
- A. Hemorrhage is the primary concern.
- B. She will be unable to conceive in the future.
- C. Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment.
- D. A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hemorrhage is the primary concern in ectopic pregnancy due to the risk of rupture and severe bleeding. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice B is incorrect as future fertility may be affected but is not the immediate concern. Choice C is incorrect as bed rest and analgesics are not effective treatments for ectopic pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as a D&C is not performed in ectopic pregnancy; surgical intervention is required to remove the ectopic pregnancy.
The nurse is teaching a health class about thegastrointestinal tract. The nurse will explain that which portion of the digestive tract absorbs most of the nutrients?
- A. Ileum
- B. Cecum
- C. Stomach
- D. Duodenum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and mixes it with bile and pancreatic enzymes to break down nutrients. The villi in the duodenum increase the surface area for absorption. The other choices (A: Ileum, B: Cecum, C: Stomach) are incorrect because the ileum and cecum are parts of the small intestine where some absorption occurs but not as much as in the duodenum. The stomach primarily digests food and does not absorb many nutrients.
A patient has herpes simplex 2 viral infection (HSV2). The nurse recognizes that which of the following should be included in teaching the patient?
- A. The virus causes cold sores of the lips.
- B. The virus may be cured with antibiotics.
- C. The virus, when active, may not be contracted during intercourse.
- D. Treatment is aimed at relieving symptoms.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because treatment for HSV2 focuses on relieving symptoms since the virus cannot be cured. Antiviral medications can help manage outbreaks and reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms. Option A is incorrect as HSV2 typically presents as genital herpes, not cold sores on the lips (usually caused by HSV1). Option B is incorrect since antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. Option C is incorrect as HSV2 is most contagious during active outbreaks, making it important to practice safe sex to prevent transmission.