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Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
- A. Sore throat
- B. Acute pain
- C. Sleep apnea
- D. Heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The rationale is that NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association-International) approves nursing diagnoses that are specific, measurable, and relevant to nursing care. Acute pain fits these criteria as it is a common nursing diagnosis that can be assessed objectively and treated with nursing interventions. The other choices (sore throat, sleep apnea, heart failure) are medical diagnoses that do not fall under the scope of nursing diagnoses approved by NANDA-I. Therefore, acute pain is the most appropriate diagnosis to be documented in a patient's care plan according to NANDA-I guidelines.
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Nurse Melanie is teaching an adult class about the different types of hepatitis. Which statement does not pertain to hepatitis A?
- A. “Is caused by an RNA virus of the enterovirus family.”
- B. “It spreads primarily by fecal-oral route, usually through the ingestion of infcetd food or liquids.”
- C. “It may not be spread from sexual contact.”
- D. “Type A hepatitis occurs worldwide, especially in areas with overcrowding and poor sanitation.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hepatitis A is caused by a virus from the Picornaviridae family, not the enterovirus family. Hepatitis A spreads through contaminated food or water, not through sexual contact. It is true that hepatitis A occurs worldwide in areas with poor sanitation, but the virus is not from the enterovirus family. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they all pertain to hepatitis A characteristics.
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
- A. abnormal vital signs. Have the patient transported to the radiology department for a scheduled x-ray, and
- B. review vital signs upon return.
- C. Ask the NAP to record the patient’s vital signs before administering medications.
- D. Omit the vital signs because the patient is presently in no distress.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it is essential for the nurse to ensure accurate and up-to-date vital signs before administering medications. By asking the NAP to record the patient's vital signs, the nurse can make informed decisions about the patient's condition and prevent any potential complications.
Choice A is incorrect because administering medications without knowing the patient's vital signs, particularly if they are abnormal, can be dangerous. Choice B is not the best course of action as it delays the crucial step of obtaining the vital signs. Choice D is incorrect as omitting vital signs without assessment could compromise patient safety. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate response to ensure patient well-being and medication safety.
Wilma, His sister and a nurse is suctioning the tracheostomy tube of James. Which of the following, if made by Wilma indicates that she is committing an error?
- A. Hyperventilating James with 100% oxygen before and after suctioning
- B. Instilling 3 to 5 ml normal saline to loosen up secretion
- C. Applying suction during catheter withdrawal
- D. Suction the client every hour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hyperventilating James with 100% oxygen before and after suctioning can lead to oxygen toxicity. The rationale is as follows:
1. Hyperventilation with 100% oxygen can lead to increased oxygen levels in the blood, potentially causing oxygen toxicity.
2. Oxygen toxicity can result in lung damage and other complications.
3. It is not recommended to administer 100% oxygen continuously, especially in high concentrations.
Therefore, Wilma committing an error by hyperventilating James with 100% oxygen. Other choices are incorrect because B is a common practice to help loosen secretions, C is correct suctioning technique, and D is a reasonable frequency for suctioning depending on the client's condition.
What is the best way to detect testicular cancer early?
- A. Monthly testicular self-examination
- B. Annual physician examination
- C. Yearly digital rectal examination
- D. Annual ultrasonography
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monthly testicular self-examination. This is the best way to detect testicular cancer early because it allows individuals to become familiar with the normal size, shape, and texture of their testicles, making it easier to notice any changes or abnormalities. Self-examination is cost-effective, convenient, and can be done regularly to monitor for any signs of cancer. Annual physician examination (B) may not be frequent enough for early detection. Yearly digital rectal examination (C) is not relevant for detecting testicular cancer. Annual ultrasonography (D) is not recommended as a routine screening tool for testicular cancer.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. Which nutrient is not likely to be in the solution?
- A. dextrose
- B. electrolytes
- C. trace minerals
- D. amino acids
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: trace minerals. TPN solutions typically include dextrose for energy, electrolytes for maintaining fluid balance, and amino acids for protein synthesis. Trace minerals are not typically included in TPN solutions as they are only required in small amounts and can be toxic in excess. Therefore, it is not likely to be in the solution. The other choices (A, B, D) are essential components of TPN solutions necessary for meeting the nutritional needs of the patient.