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Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
- A. Sore throat
- B. Acute pain
- C. Sleep apnea
- D. Heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approved diagnosis must meet specific criteria related to patient assessment data, defining characteristics, and related factors. Acute pain is a well-defined nursing diagnosis with specific defining characteristics and related factors, making it a suitable and approved option for inclusion in a patient's care plan. Sore throat, sleep apnea, and heart failure do not meet the criteria for a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as they lack the specificity and comprehensive assessment data required for a nursing diagnosis.
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Which of the following statements about fluid replacement is accurate for a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)?
- A. Administer 2 to 3L of IV fluid rapidly
- B. Administer 6L of IV fluid over the first 24 hours
- C. Administer a dextrose solution containing normal saline solution
- D. Administer IV fluid slowly to prevent circulatory overload and collapse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer 6L of IV fluid over the first 24 hours. In HHNS, dehydration is severe due to high blood glucose levels causing osmotic diuresis. Rapid infusion of fluid can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate the situation. Administering 6L over 24 hours helps gradually replenish lost fluids without causing circulatory overload. Choice A is incorrect because rapid infusion can lead to fluid overload. Choice C is incorrect because adding dextrose to the solution can further increase blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because administering IV fluids slowly can delay rehydration in a critical situation like HHNS.
The nurse is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
- A. Cancerous lumps.
- B. Changes from previous self-examinations.
- C. Areas of thickness or fullness.
- D. Fibrocystic masses.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cancerous lumps. Breast self-examination aims to detect any abnormal changes in the breasts, including potential cancerous lumps. Detecting cancerous lumps early increases the chances of successful treatment and improved outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while changes from previous self-examinations, areas of thickness or fullness, and fibrocystic masses can be important to note, the primary goal of breast self-examination is to identify any signs of breast cancer, such as cancerous lumps.
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
- A. abnormal vital signs. Have the patient transported to the radiology department for a scheduled x-ray, and
- B. review vital signs upon return.
- C. Ask the NAP to record the patient’s vital signs before administering medications.
- D. Omit the vital signs because the patient is presently in no distress.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C:
1. Safety First: Recording vital signs is crucial for patient safety. Asking the NAP to record vital signs ensures the patient's condition is monitored before administering medications.
2. Accountability: Nurses are responsible for ensuring accurate documentation of vital signs. Asking the NAP to record them maintains accountability within the healthcare team.
3. Communication: By requesting the NAP to record vital signs, the nurse fosters effective communication and collaboration in patient care.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Administering medications without reviewing vital signs could lead to adverse effects if there are abnormalities.
B: Reviewing vital signs upon return delays immediate action and could jeopardize patient safety.
D: Omitting vital signs neglects the essential monitoring required for patient care and could result in missed opportunities for early intervention.
Why does the nurse instruct the client to avoid Valsalva maneuvers?
- A. Clients BP will decrease momentarily
- B. Client may lose consciousness
- C. Client may suffer from a myocardial
- D. Clients BP will increase momentarily infarction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because performing Valsalva maneuver can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure, causing the client to lose consciousness. This occurs due to the increased intra-abdominal pressure leading to decreased venous return to the heart. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the consequences of Valsalva maneuver. Option A stating that the client's blood pressure will decrease momentarily is incorrect as it actually increases initially. Option C suggesting that the client may suffer from a myocardial infarction is incorrect as Valsalva maneuver does not directly cause heart attacks. Option D implying that the client's blood pressure will increase momentarily is also incorrect as the immediate effect is a rise followed by a significant drop.
A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client’s history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
- A. Testosterone therapy during childhood
- B. Early onset of puberty
- C. Sexually transmitted disease
- D. Cryptorchidism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer as the testicle does not descend into the scrotum during fetal development, increasing the risk of cancer development. Testosterone therapy during childhood (A) and early onset of puberty (B) are not directly linked to testicular cancer. Sexually transmitted diseases (C) typically do not increase the risk of testicular cancer. Therefore, choice D is the most relevant risk factor for testicular cancer in this scenario.