Nokea
Which disease process improves during pregnancy?
- A. Epilepsy
- B. Bell’s palsy
- C. Rheumatoid arthritis
- D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis shows marked improvement during pregnancy, although the reason for this is not entirely clear. The improvement is often significant, leading to relief from symptoms for many pregnant individuals with this condition. However, it's important to note that this improvement is temporary, as relapse typically occurs within 36 months postpartum. The exact mechanisms behind this temporary improvement are not fully understood, but hormones and changes in the immune system during pregnancy are believed to play a role in modifying the disease process.
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A patient is in the primary infection stage of HIV. What is true of this patients current health status?
- A. The patients HIV antibodies are successfully, but temporarily, killing the virus.
- B. The patient is infected with HIV but lacks HIV-specific antibodies.
- C. The patients risk for opportunistic infections is at its peak.
- D. The patient may or may not develop long-standing HIV infection.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the primary infection stage of HIV, the patient is newly infected with the virus. At this stage, the patient's immune system has not yet produced HIV-specific antibodies, making it difficult to detect HIV infection using standard antibody tests. Instead, the virus can be detected by testing for the presence of HIV RNA or p24 antigen. The primary infection stage is characterized by a high level of viral replication and rapid spread of the virus throughout the body. In this early stage, the patient may experience flu-like symptoms such as fever, sore throat, muscle aches, and swollen lymph nodes. The absence of HIV-specific antibodies means that the patient is highly infectious and can easily transmit the virus to others. As the infection progresses, the patient will eventually develop HIV-specific antibodies, which can be detected through antibody tests.
A nurse is assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma who has been recently admitted to an oncology unit. What symptoms is the nurse likely to find during the initial assessment?
- A. Loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo
- B. Loss of vision, change in mental status, and hyperthermia
- C. Loss of hearing, increased sodium retention, and hypertension
- D. Loss of vision, headache, and tachycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nurse assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma would likely find symptoms such as loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo. Acoustic neuroma, also known as vestibular schwannoma, is a noncancerous tumor that develops on the vestibulocochlear nerve, which carries sound and balance signals from the inner ear to the brain. The most common symptoms of an acoustic neuroma include progressive hearing loss, ringing in the ears (tinnitus), and dizziness or imbalance (vertigo). Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice for the symptoms that the nurse is likely to find in a patient with an acoustic neuroma.
A child has been experiencing recurrent episodes of acute otitis media (AOM). The nurse should anticipate that what intervention is likely to be ordered?
- A. Ossiculoplasty
- B. Insertion of a cochlear implant
- C. Stapedectomy
- D. Insertion of a ventilation tube
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Recurrent episodes of acute otitis media (AOM) can cause fluid accumulation in the middle ear, leading to hearing loss and increased risk of further infections. Insertion of a ventilation tube, also known as a tympanostomy tube, is a common intervention for children with recurrent AOM. This procedure involves placing a tiny tube through the eardrum to allow ventilation and drainage of fluid from the middle ear. Ventilation tubes help equalize pressure, prevent fluid buildup, and reduce the frequency of ear infections. It can improve hearing and decrease the likelihood of future episodes of AOM. Ossiculoplasty, insertion of a cochlear implant, and stapedectomy are not indicated for recurrent AOM.
A patient is on a full liquid diet. Which food item choice by the patient will cause the nurse to intervene?
- A. Custard
- B. Frozen yogurt
- C. Pureed vegetables
- D. Mashed potatoes and gravy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mashed potatoes and gravy are not appropriate for a full liquid diet. A full liquid diet consists of foods that are liquid at room temperature or melt into liquid form at body temperature. Mashed potatoes and gravy are not in liquid form and therefore should not be consumed by a patient following a full liquid diet. The nurse should intervene and provide education about the correct food choices allowed on a full liquid diet, such as custard, frozen yogurt, and pureed vegetables.
A patients daughter has asked the nurse about helping him end his terrible suffering. The nurse is aware of the ANA Position Statement on Assisted Suicide, which clearly states that nursing participation in assisted suicide is a violation of the Code for Nurses. What does the Position Statement further stress?
- A. Educating families about the moral implications of assisted suicide
- B. Identifying patient and family concerns and fears
- C. Identifying resources that meet the patients desire to die
- D. Supporting effective means to honor the patients desire to die
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ANA Position Statement on Assisted Suicide stresses the importance of identifying patient and family concerns and fears. This reflects the nurse's responsibility to provide holistic care and support to patients and their families who may be struggling with end-of-life decisions. By identifying concerns and fears, the nurse can address these issues through compassionate communication, education, and appropriate interventions. This proactive approach aligns with the ethical principles of beneficence and nonmaleficence in nursing practice.