Which drug is formulated to be absorbed through the skin? Select all that apply.
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Clonidine
- C. Propranolol
- D. Nitroglycerin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lidocaine. Lidocaine is formulated as a transdermal patch for skin absorption. It has a lipophilic structure and low molecular weight, facilitating its penetration through the skin layers. Clonidine and Propranolol are typically administered orally or intravenously, not through the skin. Nitroglycerin is also formulated for skin absorption, often used in patches for angina treatment. However, in this question, the focus is on which drug is specifically formulated for skin absorption, making Lidocaine the most appropriate choice.
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The nurse understands the differences between drug excretion in children and that in adults. With this knowledge, what does the nurse consider when administering drugs to children?
- A. Most children need a higher dose of drug, so the nurse will contact
- B. Children excrete drugs rapidly, so the nurse must assess carefully for therapeutic effects of the drug.
- C. The most important assessment is to evaluate for drug accumulation, because the excretion of drugs is slower in children.
- D. Excretion of most drugs is the same in children as in adults, but assessments are important to avoid side effects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because children have slower drug excretion compared to adults due to immature renal and hepatic functions. This makes them more vulnerable to drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Therefore, the nurse must prioritize assessing for drug accumulation when administering drugs to children.
Choice A is incorrect because not all children need a higher dose of a drug, as dosages are based on weight and age-specific factors. Choice B is incorrect because children may not always excrete drugs rapidly, and the focus should be on potential drug accumulation. Choice D is incorrect because children do not always excrete drugs at the same rate as adults, and assessments are crucial not just to avoid side effects, but also to prevent drug accumulation.
The addition of glucuronic acid to a drug:
- A. Decreases its water solubility
- B. Leads to inactivation of the drug
- C. Is an example of a Phase I metabolism reaction
- D. Occurs at the same rate in adults and new-borns
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The addition of glucuronic acid to a drug is a process known as glucuronidation, a Phase II metabolism reaction. This conjugation reaction is essential for detoxification and elimination of drugs from the body. By adding glucuronic acid, the drug becomes more water-soluble, facilitating its excretion. Therefore, Option B is correct as it leads to inactivation of the drug. Option A is incorrect as it actually increases water solubility. Option C is incorrect as glucuronidation is a Phase II reaction. Option D is incorrect as the rate of glucuronidation can vary between adults and newborns due to developmental differences.
Sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. What neurotransmitter do they release at the synapse in the ganglion?
- A. Dopamine
- B. Serotonin
- C. GABA
- D. Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic, meaning they release acetylcholine.
Step 2: In the autonomic nervous system, preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic neurons in ganglia.
Step 3: Since preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine, they will also release acetylcholine at the synapse in the ganglion.
Summary:
- Dopamine, serotonin, and GABA are not typically released by sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons.
- Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter released by cholinergic neurons in the autonomic nervous system, making it the correct choice.
A new drug was tested in an in vitro system. It was found that only one enantiomer of the racemic pair bound substantially to a specific receptor, whereas the other enantiomer showed negligible binding. Which of the following terms best defines this property?
- A. Stereoselectivity
- B. Intrinsic activity
- C. Affinity
- D. Potency
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stereoselectivity refers to the phenomenon where one enantiomer of a racemic pair exhibits a significantly different interaction compared to the other enantiomer. In this case, the enantiomer that binds substantially to the receptor while the other does not demonstrates stereoselectivity. The term "intrinsic activity" refers to the ability of a drug to activate a receptor, "affinity" refers to the strength of binding between a drug and its receptor, and "potency" refers to the concentration of a drug required to produce a specific effect. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed IM to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
- A. Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
- B. Are the reason for giving loading doses
- C. Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
- D. Are most common in collagen tissues
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because storage reservoirs increase the length of time a drug is available and active in the body. By administering medroxyprogesterone IM, a storage reservoir is created in the muscle tissue, allowing for a slow and sustained release of the drug over time. This helps maintain therapeutic levels of the medication in the bloodstream, prolonging its effects.
Incorrect answers:
A: Assuring the drug reaches its intended target tissue is related to factors such as drug transport mechanisms, not storage reservoirs.
B: Loading doses are given to achieve therapeutic levels quickly, not necessarily due to storage reservoirs.
D: Storage reservoirs are not limited to collagen tissues; they can be present in various tissues depending on the drug's properties.
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