Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
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What is the best thing to say to a patient scheduled for cataract surgery who is concerned that the physician works on the correct eye?
- A. You are wearing an ID bracelet that will let the medical team know which eye to work on.
- B. When you are taken to the surgery area, the medical staff will confirm which eye needs the surgery.
- C. The surgeon will mark the correct eye before the cataract surgery based on your medical records.
- D. You will wear an ID bracelet, and the nurse will verify the eye scheduled for surgery by comparing it with your records and marking it with a permanent marker.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient's concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.
An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the PN document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but can still eat breakfast
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. High evening glucose levels indicate that the morning dose of NPH insulin may be insufficient to control blood sugar throughout the day. Choice A is incorrect as cold and numb feet are more indicative of a circulation issue rather than an insulin inadequacy. Choice B suggests a wound infection rather than inadequate insulin. Choice D, nausea in the morning, may be due to other causes and does not necessarily indicate inadequate insulin dosage.
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
- A. Olfactory nerve
- B. Optic nerve
- C. Trigeminal nerve
- D. Vagus nerve
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).
The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?
- A. Prescription for lorazepam
- B. History of Parkinson's disease
- C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
- D. Recent urine drug screen report
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.