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Which assessment would cue the nurse to the potential of aa bc iru bt .ce o mre /ts ep sti ratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in a patient admitted with respiratory distress?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry
- B. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator
- C. Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures
- D. PaO /FiO ratio > 300 2 2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator would cue the nurse to the potential of ARDS in a patient with respiratory distress. ARDS is characterized by severe respiratory failure with bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. An increase in peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator indicates that the lungs are becoming stiffer, which is a common finding in ARDS due to increased inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli. This finding alerts the nurse to the possibility of ARDS and the need for further assessment and intervention.
Summary of other choices:
A: Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry is a nonspecific finding and may not specifically indicate ARDS.
C: Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures is more indicative of heart failure rather than ARDS.
D: PaO2/FiO2 ratio > 300 is a criterion used to diagnose ARDS, but a value higher than 300 actually indicates mild ARDS, so it would not necessarily cue the nurse
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The patient’s potassium level is 7.0 mEq/L. Besides dialysis, which of the following actually reduces plasma potassium levels and total body potassium content safely in a patient with renal dysfunction?
- A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate with sorbitol
- C. Regular insulin
- D. Calcium gluconate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Regular insulin
Rationale:
1. Insulin promotes cellular uptake of potassium.
2. When insulin is administered, it moves potassium from extracellular to intracellular space.
3. This decreases plasma potassium levels safely.
4. Other options do not directly lower potassium levels in the same manner.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate - exchanges sodium for potassium in the intestines, not reducing total body potassium.
B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate with sorbitol - similar to A, does not reduce total body potassium.
D: Calcium gluconate - does not directly lower potassium levels, used for treating hyperkalemia-induced cardiac toxicity.
A patient is experiencing severe pain, despite receiving pain medication for the past 24 hours. The patients wife expresses concern about this to the nurse. Which response by the nurse would be most empowering to the patients family?
- A. Explain that the doctor is an expert on pain medication and that the current level ofm edication is the best.
- B. Recommend that the family members take turns massaging the patients feet todistract from the pain.
- C. Encourage the family to request that the physician evaluate the patients pain control.
- D. Ask the family to wait another 24 hours to see whether the patients pain level will go down.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it empowers the family to take action by requesting a physician evaluation of the patient's pain control. This step is crucial in ensuring that the patient's pain is adequately managed. By involving the physician, the family can advocate for the patient's needs and potentially explore alternative pain management strategies.
Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses the family's concerns and fails to address the need for further evaluation. Choice B may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate pain control. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests delaying action, which could lead to prolonged suffering for the patient.
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving benzodiazepine intermittently. What is the best way to administer such drugs?
- A. Medicate around the clock, rather than as needed, to en sure constant sedation.
- B. Administer the medications through the feeding tube to prevent complications.
- C. Give the highest allowable dose for the greatest effect.
- D. Titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedat ion scale.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedation scale. This approach ensures individualized dosing based on the patient's response, minimizing the risk of over-sedation or under-treatment. It allows for careful monitoring and adjustment of dosage to achieve the desired level of sedation while avoiding adverse effects.
A: Administering medication around the clock may lead to unnecessary sedation and increased risk of side effects.
B: Administering medications through a feeding tube is not recommended for benzodiazepines as it may affect absorption and increase the risk of complications.
C: Giving the highest allowable dose without considering individual response can result in excessive sedation and adverse effects.
represent?
- A. Alveolar oxygen tension.
- B. Oxygen that is chemically combined with hemoglobin .
- C. Oxygen that is physically dissolved in plasma.
- D. Total oxygen consumption.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oxygen that is chemically combined with hemoglobin. This is because oxygen primarily travels in the blood by binding to hemoglobin in red blood cells, forming oxyhemoglobin. This process allows for efficient transport of oxygen to tissues throughout the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because:
A: Alveolar oxygen tension refers to the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs, not the specific form of oxygen in the blood.
C: Oxygen physically dissolved in plasma refers to the small amount of oxygen that is not bound to hemoglobin and is less significant in oxygen transport compared to oxygen bound to hemoglobin.
D: Total oxygen consumption is the overall amount of oxygen utilized by the body, not specifically the form of oxygen bound to hemoglobin for transport.
Intrapulmonary shunting refers to what outcome?
- A. Alveoli that are not perfused.
- B. Blood that is shunted from the left side of the heart to t he right and causes heart failure.
- C. Blood that is shunted from the right side of the heart to the left without oxygenation.
- D. Shunting of blood supply to only one lung.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct:
1. Intrapulmonary shunting refers to blood bypassing the normal oxygenation process in the lungs.
2. Choice C describes blood being shunted from the right side of the heart (deoxygenated blood) to the left side without oxygenation, leading to systemic circulation without oxygenation.
3. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately describe intrapulmonary shunting as they focus on other concepts like alveolar perfusion, heart failure, and unilateral lung blood supply, respectively.