Nokea
Which factor places the client at the highest risk of pre-eclampsia?
- A. White race
- B. Multiparity
- C. Obesity
- D. Infertility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for pre-eclampsia due to the increased strain on the cardiovascular system and potential inflammatory effects. It can lead to hypertension and vascular dysfunction, contributing to the development of pre-eclampsia. White race (A) is not a specific risk factor for pre-eclampsia. Multiparity (B) is a risk factor, but obesity has a higher association with pre-eclampsia. Infertility (D) is not a known risk factor for pre-eclampsia. In summary, obesity poses the highest risk due to its direct impact on cardiovascular health and inflammation.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks gestation who comes to the emergency department for painful bleeding. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
- A. Monitor for contractions
- B. Assess pain level
- C. Assess for hemorrhage
- D. Provide emotional support
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct priority nursing assessment in this scenario is to assess for hemorrhage (Choice C). This is crucial because painful bleeding in a client at 32 weeks gestation could indicate a potential life-threatening situation such as placental abruption or placenta previa. Assessing for hemorrhage involves checking the amount and type of bleeding, vital signs, and signs of shock. It is essential to identify and address hemorrhage promptly to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Monitoring for contractions (Choice A) is important but assessing for hemorrhage takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses. Assessing the pain level (Choice B) is secondary to assessing for hemorrhage in this case. Providing emotional support (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's physical well-being is addressed.
During an assessment of a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of congenital ventral septal defect, a nurse notes that the client is experiencing a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion. The nurse knows that this assessment finding may indicate which of the following?
- A. Orthopnea
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Anemia
- D. Decreased blood volume
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary edema. A nonproductive cough on minimal exertion in a pregnant client with a history of congenital ventral septal defect suggests pulmonary edema. This is due to fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to coughing. Pulmonary edema can occur due to increased blood volume and pressure on the heart during pregnancy, exacerbating the client's pre-existing heart condition. Orthopnea (choice A) is difficulty breathing while lying flat, not specifically related to coughing. Anemia (choice C) may cause fatigue and weakness but is not directly linked to a nonproductive cough. Decreased blood volume (choice D) is unlikely in a pregnant client and would not explain the cough.
The labor and delivery nurse reviews a client’s prenatal records and notes that the client had a positive GBS culture at 27 weeks gestation. Based on current guidelines, what is the recommended plan?
- A. Send a GBS to the laboratory immediately
- B. Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically
- C. Determine if a follow-up culture was done at 38 weeks gestation
- D. Determine if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically. This is recommended by current guidelines for clients with a positive GBS culture at 27 weeks gestation to prevent transmission to the newborn during delivery. Administering penicillin prophylactically during labor significantly reduces the risk of early-onset GBS disease in newborns.
A: Sending a GBS to the laboratory immediately is not necessary as the client's GBS status is already known.
C: Checking for a follow-up culture at 38 weeks gestation is not the recommended plan based on current guidelines.
D: Determining if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep is not the immediate action needed; prophylactic antibiotics during labor are the standard of care.
The nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks gestation. Which assessment requires further intervention?
- A. Hemoglobin 11 and hematocrit 33
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80
- C. Patient has slight pedal swelling
- D. Urine dipstick for protein 3+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick reading of 3+ for protein indicates significant proteinuria, which can be a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia poses serious risks to both the mother and the fetus, requiring immediate medical intervention.
Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels within normal range for pregnancy.
Choice B: Blood pressure slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age.
Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy and may not indicate a serious issue at this time.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks gestation who comes to the emergency department for painful bleeding. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
- A. Monitor for contractions
- B. Assess pain level
- C. Assess for hemorrhage
- D. Provide emotional support
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess for hemorrhage. This is the priority assessment as the client is experiencing painful bleeding, indicating a potential hemorrhage which can be life-threatening. Assessing for hemorrhage will help identify the severity of the situation and guide immediate interventions. Monitoring for contractions (choice A) is important but assessing for hemorrhage takes precedence. Assessing pain level (choice B) is important but addressing the potential hemorrhage is more critical. Providing emotional support (choice D) is important but should come after addressing the urgent medical need of assessing for hemorrhage.