Nokea
Which finding in the assessment of a patient following an abruption placenta could indicate a major complication?
- A. Urine output of 30 mL in 1 hour
- B. Blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg
- C. Bleeding at IV insertion site
- D. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C - bleeding at IV insertion site. This finding could indicate a major complication following an abruption placenta, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) or hypovolemic shock. Bleeding at the IV site suggests a systemic issue affecting the patient's coagulation status. Choices A, B, and D are not directly indicative of a major complication following an abruption placenta. Urine output, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically point to a major complication in this context.
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A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is being visited by the home health nurse who is creating a care plan. What nursing diagnosis is most likely for a patient with this condition?
- A. Chronic confusion
- B. Impaired urinary elimination
- C. Impaired verbal communication
- D. Bowel incontinence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired verbal communication. In ALS, motor neurons deteriorate leading to muscle weakness and atrophy, including those involved in speech production. This results in impaired verbal communication. Chronic confusion (A) is not a common manifestation of ALS. Impaired urinary elimination (B) and bowel incontinence (D) are not typically associated with ALS, as it primarily affects motor neurons, not autonomic functions.
A patient has been diagnosed with glaucoma and the nurse is preparing health education regarding the patients medication regimen. The patient states that she is eager to beat this disease and looks forward to the time that she will no longer require medication. How should the nurse best respond?
- A. You have a great attitude. This will likely shorten the amount of time that you need medications.
- B. In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.
- C. Most people are treated until their intraocular pressure goes below 50 mm Hg.
- D. You can likely expect a minimum of 6 months of treatment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications.
1. Glaucoma is a chronic condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure.
2. Lifelong treatment is usually necessary to manage intraocular pressure and prevent vision loss.
3. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to worsening of the condition.
4. Therefore, the nurse should educate the patient about the need for ongoing medication to manage glaucoma effectively.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Having a positive attitude is beneficial, but it does not shorten the duration of glaucoma treatment.
C: Incorrect. The target intraocular pressure is usually below 21 mm Hg, not 50 mm Hg.
D: Incorrect. Glaucoma treatment is typically long-term, not limited to 6 months.
A patient has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for HIV infection. The patient asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood, this indicates what?
- A. The patient is immune to HIV.
- B. The patients immune system is intact.
- C. The patient has AIDS-related complications.
- D. The patient has been infected with HIV.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The patient has been infected with HIV. Antibodies to the AIDS virus in the blood indicate a past or current infection with HIV. This is because the body produces antibodies in response to the presence of the virus.
A: The patient is immune to HIV is incorrect because antibodies indicate exposure, not immunity.
B: The patient's immune system is intact is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not necessarily reflect the overall functionality of the immune system.
C: The patient has AIDS-related complications is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not directly indicate the presence of AIDS-related complications.
A patient, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?
- A. Her two children should be treated with acyclovir before she goes home from the hospital.
- B. The baby will acquire immunity from her and will not be susceptible to chickenpox.
- C. The children can visit their mother and baby in the hospital as planned but must wear gowns and masks.
- D. She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
1. The patient's newborn is at risk of contracting chickenpox from the infected children.
2. Chickenpox can be severe in newborns due to their immature immune systems.
3. It is crucial to protect the newborn by ensuring they are not exposed to the virus.
4. Staying elsewhere until the children are no longer contagious will prevent transmission to the newborn.
Incorrect choices:
A: Acyclovir is not recommended for prophylactic treatment in this situation.
B: Immunity is not automatically transferred from the mother to the baby for chickenpox.
C: Allowing the infected children to visit with precautions is not sufficient to protect the newborn.
The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse’s next action?
- A. Ask the patient when she last had anything to eat or drink.
- B. Take a culture of the lesions to verify the involved organism.
- C. Ask the patient if she has had unprotected sex since her outbreak.
- D. Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate. This is important in assessing the well-being of the fetus during labor, especially in the presence of genital herpes lesions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate helps in detecting any signs of distress or compromise due to maternal infection.
A: Asking about the patient's last intake is important but not the immediate priority when managing a patient with active genital herpes lesions in labor.
B: Taking a culture of the lesions might be helpful but not the immediate action needed in this situation.
C: Asking about unprotected sex is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the fetal well-being during labor in this scenario.
Overall, the most critical action is to monitor the fetal heart rate for any signs of distress related to the maternal herpes infection.