For each potential intervention, click to specify if the intervention is anticipated or contraindicated for the client.
- A. Monitor blood pressure every hour
- B. Maintain continuous monitoring of the FHR
- C. Initiate an IV infusion of lactated Ringers
- D. Place the client in a left lateral position
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure, maintaining continuous FHR monitoring, and placing the client in a left lateral position are all anticipated interventions in labor management.
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After the nurse indicates chest pain protocol, which of the following is the priority diagnostic test?
- A. PT and INR
- B. 12 lead ECG
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. D-dimer test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chest X-ray. When a patient presents with chest pain, a chest X-ray is crucial to evaluate for any acute cardiopulmonary conditions like pneumonia, pneumothorax, or aortic dissection. It helps identify any immediate life-threatening issues that require prompt intervention. PT and INR (A) are coagulation tests not typically indicated for acute chest pain. A 12-lead ECG (B) is important but usually done after the chest X-ray to assess for cardiac abnormalities. D-dimer test (D) is used to rule out pulmonary embolism, but it is not the priority test in the initial evaluation of chest pain.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative and has a history of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Pain at the surgical site
- C. Mild nausea
- D. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. Dyspnea in a postoperative client with a history of pulmonary embolism indicates a potential complication, such as a recurrent or new pulmonary embolism, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention to prevent worsening respiratory distress and potential respiratory failure. Pain at the surgical site (choice B) is expected postoperatively and can be managed with appropriate pain medications. Mild nausea (choice C) is a common postoperative symptom and can be managed with antiemetic medications. A temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) (choice D) may indicate a mild fever, which can be monitored unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
The nurse should intervene and explain to the AP that this statement constitutes which of the following torts?
- A. Assault
- B. Battery
- C. False imprisonment
- D. Negligence
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault is the intentional act causing the apprehension of harmful or offensive contact. In this scenario, the statement made by the AP creates fear or apprehension of harm, even though no physical contact has occurred yet.
Choice B (Battery) involves actual physical contact, which is not present here. Choice C (False imprisonment) involves restricting someone's movement, not applicable in this situation. Choice D (Negligence) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, which is not the case here. The correct answer, assault, best fits the scenario described.
Which type of insulin should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Glargine insulin.
- B. Regular insulin.
- C. NPH insulin.
- D. Insulin aspart.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Glargine insulin because it is a long-acting insulin with a duration of action of up to 24 hours, providing a basal level of insulin throughout the day. It is typically administered once daily at the same time each day to maintain stable blood glucose levels. Regular insulin (B) is short-acting and is usually given before meals. NPH insulin (C) is intermediate-acting and has a peak action of 4-12 hours. Insulin aspart (D) is a rapid-acting insulin used for mealtime coverage. In this scenario, the nurse should anticipate administering Glargine insulin for its long-acting, basal properties.
In anticipation of multiple client admissions, which of the following current clients should the nurse recommend for early discharge?
- A. A client who was one day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.
- B. A client receiving IV antibiotics for pneumonia with a fever of 101°F(38.3°C).
- C. A client who had a transient ischemic attack(TIA) 12 hours ago and is awaiting further evaluation.
- D. A client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation requiring continuous cardiac monitoring.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The client one day postoperative following a vertebroplasty can be recommended for early discharge as this procedure is typically short-stay and does not require extended monitoring. The client is likely stable and can continue recovery at home.
Choice B is incorrect because a client with pneumonia and a fever of 101°F requires continued IV antibiotics and monitoring to ensure resolution of infection and fever reduction.
Choice C is incorrect as a client with a recent TIA requires further evaluation and monitoring to prevent recurrent strokes and assess for potential complications.
Choice D is incorrect because a client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation requiring continuous cardiac monitoring should not be discharged early as they need close monitoring and management to prevent complications like stroke or heart failure.