Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be prescribed for the client with diabetes mellitus to reduce vascular changes and possibly prevent or delay the development of:
- A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
- B. Pancreatic cancer.
- C. Renal failure.
- D. Cerebrovascular accident.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal failure. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in clients with diabetes mellitus to help reduce the progression of diabetic nephropathy by improving renal blood flow. This medication class can help prevent or delay the development of renal failure in these clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ACE inhibitors do not have a direct impact on preventing or delaying the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pancreatic cancer, or cerebrovascular accidents in clients with diabetes mellitus.
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When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Have small, frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals
- B. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods
- C. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake
- D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, the nurse should instruct them to eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake. This diet helps in managing diverticulitis by promoting bowel regularity and preventing complications such as diverticular inflammation or infection. Choice A of having small, frequent meals and sitting up for at least two hours after meals may be beneficial for gastroesophageal reflux disease but is not specific to diverticulitis. Choice B of eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods is not the preferred recommendation for diverticulitis management. Choice D of eating a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products may not provide enough fiber to aid in diverticulitis management, and the increased intake of dairy products may worsen symptoms in some individuals.
In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following is a common complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hypernatremia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hyperphosphatemia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common complication in chronic kidney disease due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. As kidney function declines, potassium levels may increase, leading to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels), hypocalcemia (low calcium levels), and hyperphosphatemia (elevated phosphate levels) are not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperkalemia.
A client is receiving Cilostazol (Pletal) for peripheral arterial disease causing intermittent claudication. The nurse determines this medication is effective when the client reports which of the following?
- A. I am having fewer aches and pains.
- B. I do not have headaches anymore.
- C. I am able to walk further without leg pain.
- D. My toes are turning grayish black in color.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cilostazol improves blood flow to the muscles, which helps alleviate symptoms of intermittent claudication. An improvement in walking distance without leg pain indicates the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A and B are not directly related to the expected outcome of Cilostazol therapy for intermittent claudication. Choice D is concerning for a potential adverse effect and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately.
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Increased blood pressure.
- C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician. It is indicative of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneal cavity and a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Prompt medical attention is crucial to prevent further complications or systemic infection. Clear dialysate outflow (Choice A) is a normal finding in peritoneal dialysis. Increased blood pressure (Choice B) and decreased urine output (Choice D) are common in clients with chronic renal failure and may not require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?
- A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
- B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
- C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
- D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.