Which government-instituted programs should the nurse include in a teaching session about controlling health care costs? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Professional standards review organizations
- B. Prospective payment systems
- C. Diagnosis-related groups
- D. Third-party payers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The federal government, the biggest consumer of health care, which pays for Medicare and Medicaid, has created professional standards review organizations (PSROs) to review the quality, quantity, and costs of hospital care. One of the most significant factors that influenced payment for health care was the prospective payment system (PPS). Established by Congress in 1983, the PPS eliminated cost-based reimbursement. Instead, the PPS grouped inpatient hospital services for Medicare patients into diagnosis-related groups (DRGs).
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Which type of cutaneous stimulation involves massage of the abdomen?
- A. Imagery
- B. Effleurage
- C. Mental stimulation
- D. Thermal stimulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Effleurage. Effleurage is a type of massage technique involving long, gentle strokes on the skin. Massaging the abdomen with effleurage can help improve circulation, relax muscles, and promote digestion. Imagery (A) is a technique involving mental visualization, not physical touch. Mental stimulation (C) refers to cognitive activities, not physical touch. Thermal stimulation (D) involves the application of temperature changes, not massage. Therefore, effleurage is the most suitable choice for massage of the abdomen.
Which laboratory is important to know when a client is having an amniocentesis?
- A. Blood type
- B. CBC
- C. Rh
- D. PT and PTT
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Rh factor is crucial to know to prevent Rh incompatibility issues during pregnancy.
2. Amniocentesis can pose a risk for Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers.
3. Knowing the Rh status helps determine if Rhogam (anti-D) is needed after amniocentesis.
4. Blood type (A) and CBC (B) are important but not directly relevant to amniocentesis.
5. PT and PTT (D) are coagulation tests, typically not required for routine amniocentesis.
The nurse is obtaining the first postpartum meal for a client who has stated that she practices Mormonism (the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints). Which of the following items should the nurse remove from the clients’ food tray?
- A. Caffeinated coffee.
- B. Cheeseburger.
- C. Fried fish.
- D. Pork sausage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mormons typically avoid caffeinated beverages as part of their religious practices.
A baby is born addicted to crack cocaine. Which of the following signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to see?
- A. Hyperreflexia.
- B. Anorexia.
- C. Constipation.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neonates born addicted to crack cocaine often exhibit hyperreflexia, irritability, and other signs of withdrawal.
For which patient would an L/S ratio of 2:1 potentially be considered abnormal?
- A. A 38-year-old gravida 2, para 1, who is 38 weeks' gestation
- B. A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who has diabetes
- C. A 44-year-old gravida 6, para 5, who is at term
- D. An 18-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who is in early labor at term
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An L/S ratio of 2:1 is indicative of fetal lung maturity. This means that the lungs of the fetus are likely mature enough to function outside the womb. In choice B, the patient is 24 years old with diabetes, a condition that can affect fetal lung development, making it crucial to assess lung maturity.
Choice A is less likely to have abnormal lung maturity at 38 weeks' gestation. Choice C, a 44-year-old gravida 6, para 5, is more likely to have mature fetal lungs due to multiple pregnancies. Choice D, an 18-year-old in early labor at term, may not necessarily have abnormal lung maturity as she is at term and in labor.