Nokea
Which immunoglobulin is specific to an allergic response?
- A. IgA
- B. IgE
- C. IgB
- D. IgG
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgE. IgE is specific to allergic responses as it binds to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. IgA is more involved in mucosal immunity, IgG is involved in long-term immunity and opsonization, and IgM is the primary antibody in the primary immune response. IgB is not a known immunoglobulin. Therefore, IgE is the specific immunoglobulin associated with allergic responses due to its role in mediating hypersensitivity reactions.
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Nurse Nancy also gives a lecture at the community health center about the diet for patients with ulcerative colitis. Which one is appropriate?
- A. high calorie, low protein
- B. low fat, high fiber
- C. high protein, low residue
- D. low sodium, high carbohydrate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: high protein, low residue. For patients with ulcerative colitis, a high protein diet helps in tissue healing and repair. Low residue foods are recommended to reduce bowel irritation. Choice A is incorrect because low protein can impair healing. Choice B is unsuitable as high fiber may worsen symptoms. Choice D is not ideal as high carbohydrate can be difficult to digest for colitis patients.
The nurse has given medication instruction to the client receiving phenyton (Dilantin). The nurse determines that the client has an adequate understanding if the client states that:
- A. “Alcohol is not contraindicated while taking this medication.”
- B. “Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing.”
- C. “The medication dose may be self-adjusted depending on side effects.”
- D. “The morning dose of the medication should be taken before a serum drug level is drawn.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." This is because phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices, such as regular brushing and flossing, can help prevent or minimize this side effect.
Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is contraindicated while taking phenytoin as it can increase the risk of side effects and decrease the effectiveness of the medication.
Choice C is incorrect because medication doses should never be self-adjusted without consulting a healthcare provider, as this can lead to ineffective treatment or potential harm.
Choice D is incorrect because the timing of the morning dose in relation to drawing a serum drug level is not relevant to the client's understanding of medication instructions and does not address the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia associated with phenytoin.
Of the following types of nursing diagnoses, which one is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics?
- A. Risk nursing diagnosis
- B. Actual nursing diagnosis
- C. Possible nursing diagnosis
- D. Wellness diagnosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actual nursing diagnosis. An actual nursing diagnosis is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics, which are signs and symptoms that support the diagnosis. This helps to differentiate it from other types of diagnoses such as risk, possible, or wellness diagnoses. Risk nursing diagnoses predict potential problems, possible nursing diagnoses lack sufficient data for validation, and wellness diagnoses focus on promoting health rather than addressing current health issues. Therefore, only the actual nursing diagnosis is confirmed by the presence of observable defining characteristics.
The physician orders propranolol (Inderal) for a client's angina. The effect of this drug is to:
- A. Act as a vasoconstrictor
- B. Block beta stimulation in the heart
- C. Act as a vasodilator
- D. Increase the heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in the heart. By doing so, it reduces the heart rate, decreases the force of contraction, and lowers blood pressure, which helps in managing angina. Option A is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor. Option C is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasodilator. Option D is incorrect because propranolol decreases the heart rate rather than increasing it.
A post-TURP patient experiences dribbling following removal of his catheter. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Have him restrict fluid intake to 1000 mL/day
- B. Teach him to perform Kegel’s exercises 10 to 20 times per hour
- C. Reinsert the Foley catheter until he regains urinary control
- D. Reassure him that incontinence never lasts more than a few days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach him to perform Kegel's exercises 10 to 20 times per hour. This is the appropriate action because Kegel's exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve urinary control and reduce dribbling post-TURP. Restricting fluid intake (A) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration. Reinserting the Foley catheter (C) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Reassuring the patient (D) without providing any intervention is not addressing the issue. Teaching Kegel's exercises is the most effective and non-invasive approach to manage post-TURP dribbling.