Nokea
Which individual has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?
- A. A 16-year-old dark-skinned female who tans in tanning beds once a week.
- B. A 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker
- C. A 25-year-old dark-skinned male whose mother had skin cancer.
- D. A 70-year-old fair-skinned female who works as a secretary.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, a 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker. Fair-skinned individuals are at higher risk of developing skin cancer due to prolonged sun exposure. Construction workers are often exposed to the sun for long periods, further increasing the risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to develop skin cancer compared to choice B due to factors such as age, frequency of tanning bed use, and occupation.
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While performing a skin assessment on an older adult, the nurse notices a number of irregular round brownish-colored lesions on the client's hands, arms, and face. On palpation, they are flat and slightly rough to the touch. Based on this assessment finding, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Apply a topical antibiotic ointment.
- B. Monitor the lesions for changes.
- C. Advise the client to use sunscreen.
- D. Refer the client for a skin lesion biopsy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Referral for a skin biopsy is necessary to rule out potential malignancy of irregular skin lesions. Applying a topical antibiotic ointment (Choice A) is not indicated for irregular pigmented lesions. Monitoring the lesions for changes (Choice B) may delay appropriate intervention if malignancy is present. Advising the client to use sunscreen (Choice C) is important for sun protection but is not the priority when irregular lesions are present.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?
- A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
- B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
- C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
- D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.
Laboratory findings indicate that a client's serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
- B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
- C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.
A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?
- A. Milk
- B. Apples
- C. Carrots
- D. Rice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.
How is gastroesophageal reflux (GER) typically treated in infants?
- A. By placing the infant NPO
- B. By thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal
- C. By placing the infant to sleep on the side
- D. By switching the infant to cow's milk
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is typically treated by thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal. This helps reduce reflux episodes by making the feedings heavier and less likely to come back up. Placing the infant NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the typical treatment for GER as infants need proper nutrition for growth. Placing the infant to sleep on the side is not recommended due to the risk of SIDS; infants should be placed on their back to sleep. Switching the infant to cow's milk is also not a treatment for GER, as cow's milk can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.