Nokea
Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)?
- A. The patient has relapsing-remitting MS
- B. The patient walks a mile a day for exercise
- C. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion
- D. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has an increased serum creatinine level. Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function as it can worsen their condition. Options A, B, and C are unrelated to the administration of dalfampridine. The fact that the patient has relapsing-remitting MS, walks for exercise, or experiences neck pain does not directly impact the decision to administer dalfampridine. However, an increased serum creatinine level is a contraindication for this medication and requires consultation with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.
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A diabetic patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding?
- A. Intercostal retractions
- B. Kussmaul respirations
- C. Low oxygen saturation (SpO2)
- D. Decreased venous O2 pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (deep and rapid) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. The low pH and low bicarbonate levels indicate metabolic acidosis. Intercostal retractions, low oxygen saturation, and decreased venous O2 pressure are not associated with acidosis. Intercostal retractions typically occur in respiratory distress, while low oxygen saturation and decreased venous O2 pressure are more related to respiratory or circulatory issues, not metabolic acidosis.
The patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the patient indicates effective teaching?
- A. I am going to buy a rib binder to wear during the day.
- B. I can take shallow breaths to prevent my chest from hurting.
- C. I should plan on taking the pain pills only at bedtime so I can sleep.
- D. I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.' After sustaining rib fractures, it is crucial to prevent complications like atelectasis and pneumonia by practicing deep breathing and coughing. Using the incentive spirometer helps in maintaining lung expansion and preventing respiratory issues. Buying a rib binder could restrict chest expansion and hinder deep breathing efforts, increasing the risk of atelectasis. Taking shallow breaths may not effectively expand the lungs, leading to potential respiratory complications. Relying solely on pain medication at bedtime may not adequately address the need for lung expansion and prevention of respiratory complications during the day.
A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?
- A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Infectious mononucleosis
- D. Norovirus infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.
A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?
- A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
- B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
- C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
- D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.
A patient with acute dyspnea is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan.
Which information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider
before the CT?
- A. Allergy to shellfish
- B. Apical pulse of 104
- C. Respiratory rate of 30
- D. Oxygen saturation of 90%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Because iodine-based contrast media is used during a spiral CT, the patient may need to have the
CT scan without contrast or be premedicated before injection of the contrast media. The
increased pulse, low oxygen saturation, and tachypnea all indicate a need for further assessment
or intervention but do not indicate a need to modify the CT procedure.