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Which intervention is most appropriate to promote the self-esteem of a patient with severe depression?
- A. Encouraging the patient to spend time alone for self-reflection.
- B. Involving the patient in simple, achievable activities to ensure success.
- C. Allowing the patient to rest and avoid responsibilities.
- D. Providing frequent reassurances and compliments.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Involving the patient in simple, achievable activities is a constructive approach to promote self-esteem by fostering a sense of accomplishment and success. This method encourages positive reinforcement and helps the patient regain confidence and self-worth, which are essential in managing depression. Choice A could potentially lead to rumination and worsen depressive symptoms. Choice C might reinforce avoidance behaviors and hinder progress. Choice D, while supportive, may not address the core need for building self-esteem through personal achievements.
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During a mental health assessment, a patient states, 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore.' This statement is an indication of which of the following?
- A. Anxiety disorder
- B. Bipolar disorder
- C. Depression
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's statement 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore' reflects feelings of hopelessness and a lack of purpose, which are common symptoms of depression. Depression is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, emptiness, and loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable. While anxiety disorders can involve excessive worry and fear, bipolar disorder includes episodes of both depression and mania, and schizophrenia typically involves symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, depression is the most appropriate choice based on the patient's statement.
Which statement by a patient indicates an understanding of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)?
- A. CBT will help me understand and change my thought patterns.
- B. CBT focuses on resolving past trauma.
- C. CBT will help me avoid my problems.
- D. CBT involves taking medication to manage symptoms.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a type of psychotherapy that focuses on helping patients understand and change their thought patterns to improve their mental health. This therapy aims to identify and modify negative or harmful thoughts and behaviors. Option A correctly reflects this fundamental concept of CBT, emphasizing the role of thought patterns in mental health improvement. Choices B and C are incorrect because CBT does not primarily focus on resolving past trauma or avoiding problems; instead, it concentrates on changing cognitive patterns. Choice D is also inaccurate as CBT does not involve medication management but rather focuses on cognitive and behavioral interventions.
A healthcare provider is educating a patient about the side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Which side effect should the provider emphasize?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased libido
- C. Nausea
- D. Insomnia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When educating patients about SSRIs, it is crucial to emphasize the common side effect of nausea. Nausea is a frequently reported side effect of SSRIs that can impact adherence to treatment. By highlighting this side effect, patients can be better prepared and informed about what to expect when taking these medications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as weight gain, increased libido, and insomnia are not typically associated with SSRIs as common side effects. Nausea is a more relevant and prevalent side effect to address with patients.
Which of the following is an example of a mood stabilizer used to treat bipolar disorder?
- A. Fluoxetine
- B. Lithium
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Lorazepam
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium is a widely recognized mood stabilizer used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control mood swings, prevent manic episodes, and reduce the risk of suicidal behavior in individuals with bipolar disorder. Fluoxetine is an antidepressant, Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, and Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, none of which are primary mood stabilizers for bipolar disorder.
Which therapeutic communication technique involves restating the patient's message to ensure understanding?
- A. Clarification
- B. Reflection
- C. Summarization
- D. Paraphrasing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Paraphrasing is the correct therapeutic communication technique where the nurse restates the patient's message in their own words to confirm understanding. This technique helps in validating the patient's feelings and ensuring that both parties are in agreement, leading to effective communication and rapport building. Choice A, 'Clarification,' involves seeking further information to enhance understanding rather than restating the message. Choice B, 'Reflection,' involves echoing the patient's feelings to show empathy rather than restating the message. Choice C, 'Summarization,' involves condensing the main points of a conversation rather than restating a specific message.