Nokea
Which intervention should the nurse take first to assist a woman who states that she feels incompetent as the mother of a teenage daughter?
- A. Recommend that she discipline her daughter more strictly and consistently.
- B. Make a list of things she can do to help improve her husband.
- C. Assist the mother to identify what she believes is preventing her success and what she can do to improve.
- D. Explore with the mother what the daughter can do to improve her behavior.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority intervention for a mother who feels incompetent in parenting a teenage daughter is to assist her in identifying the factors contributing to her feelings of inadequacy and help her develop better coping and mothering skills. This approach focuses on addressing the mother's emotional needs and empowering her to improve her situation. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the daughter's discipline, which may not be the root cause of the mother's feelings. Option B is irrelevant as it focuses on improving her husband, not her parenting skills. Option D is incorrect as it shifts the focus solely to the daughter's behavior, neglecting the mother's emotional needs and self-improvement.
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A client with cancer is to undergo an intravenous pyelogram. The nurse should:
- A. Ensure adequate fluid intake 24 hours before the procedure
- B. Ask the client to void immediately before the study
- C. Administer medication that affects the central nervous system as prescribed
- D. Position the client appropriately for the procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to void immediately before the study. For an intravenous pyelogram, the client may have orders for laxatives or enemas, so ensuring the client voids before the test is important to prevent obscuring visualization of the kidney, ureters, and bladder. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to force fluids before the procedure. Choice C is incorrect as medications affecting the central nervous system should not be held unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as covering the reproductive organs with an x-ray shield is not necessary for an intravenous pyelogram.
In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's:
- A. feelings about what has been described
- B. thoughts about what has been described
- C. possible solutions to the problem
- D. intent in sharing the description
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a psychosocial assessment, the nurse should progress from having the client describe problematic behaviors to eliciting their thoughts about the dilemmas. This step provides essential assessment data and insights into the client's interpretation of the situation. Asking about feelings, solutions, or intent in sharing the description is premature at this stage. Understanding the client's thoughts is crucial before delving into more complex emotional or problem-solving aspects. Therefore, the correct answer is to elicit the client's thoughts about the described behaviors and situations, as this helps the nurse gain a deeper understanding of the client's perspective and thought processes.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.
How does the ANA define the psychiatric nursing role?
- A. a specialized area of nursing practice that employs theories of human behavior as its science and the powerful use of self as its art
- B. assisting the therapist to relieve the symptoms of clients
- C. to solve clients' problems and give them the answers
- D. having a client committed to long-term therapy with the nurse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer aligns with the ANA's definition of the psychiatric nursing role. According to the ANA, psychiatric nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that incorporates theories of human behavior as its foundational science and utilizes the self as its essential art. This definition emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior and leveraging therapeutic communication and relationships to provide effective care for individuals with mental health concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the ANA-defined role of psychiatric nursing. Psychiatric nurses primarily focus on delivering holistic care, promoting mental health, and supporting individuals with mental health challenges using evidence-based practices and therapeutic interventions.
While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:
- A. Peaked P wave
- B. Elevated ST segment
- C. Inverted T wave
- D. Prolonged QT interval
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.