Nokea
Which is a bright red, rubbery nodule with a rough surface and a well-defined margin that may be present at birth?
- A. Port-wine stain
- B. Juvenile melanoma
- C. Cavernous hemangioma
- D. Strawberry hemangioma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strawberry hemangiomas (or capillary hemangiomas) are benign cutaneous tumors that involve only capillaries. They are bright red, rubbery nodules with rough surfaces and well-defined margins. They may or may not be apparent at birth but enlarge during the first year of life and tend to resolve spontaneously by ages 2 to 3 years. A port-wine stain is a vascular stain that is a permanent lesion and is present at birth. Initially, it is a pink; red; or, rarely, purple stain of the skin that is flat at birth; it thickens, darkens, and proportionately enlarges as the infant grows. Melanoma is not differentiated into juvenile and adult forms. A cavernous hemangioma involves deeper vessels in the dermis and has a bluish red color and poorly defined margins.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is an infant with severe jaundice at risk for developing?
- A. Encephalopathy
- B. Bullous impetigo
- C. Respiratory distress
- D. Blood incompatibility
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Unconjugated bilirubin, which can cross the blood-brain barrier, is highly toxic to neurons. An infant with severe jaundice is at risk for developing kernicterus or bilirubin encephalopathy. Bullous impetigo is a highly infectious bacterial infection of the skin. It has no relation to severe jaundice. A blood incompatibility may be the causative factor for the severe jaundice.
A newborn has been diagnosed with brachial nerve paralysis. The nurse should assist the breastfeeding mother to use which hold or position during feeding?
- A. Reclining
- B. The cradle hold
- C. The football hold
- D. The cross-over hold
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In brachial nerve paralysis, the affected arm is gently immobilized on the upper abdomen. Tucking the newborn under the arm (football hold) puts less pressure on the newborns affected extremity. The other positions place the newborns body next to the mothers and can cause pressure on the affected arm.
Rh hemolytic disease is suspected in a mothers second baby, a son. Which factor is important in understanding how this could develop?
- A. The first child was a girl.
- B. The first child was Rh positive.
- C. Both parents have type O blood.
- D. She was not immunized against hemolysis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hemolytic disease of the newborn results from an abnormally rapid rate of red blood cell (RBC) destruction. The major causes of this are maternal-fetal Rh and ABO incompatibility. If an Rh-negative mother has previously been exposed to Rh-positive blood through pregnancy or blood transfusion, antibodies to this blood group antigen may develop so that she is isoimmunized. With further exposure to Rh-positive blood, the maternal antibodies agglutinate with the RBCs of the fetus that has the antigen and destroy the cells. Hemolytic disease caused by ABO incompatibilities can be present with the first pregnancy. The gender of the first child is not a concern. Blood type is the important consideration. If both parents have type O blood, ABO incompatibility should not be a possibility.
A mother brings her 6-week-old infant in with complaints of poor feeding, lethargy, fever, irritability, and a vesicular rash. What does the nurse suspect?
- A. Impetigo
- B. Candidiasis
- C. Neonatal herpes
- D. Congenital syphilis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Neonatal herpes is one of the most serious viral infections in newborns, with a mortality rate of up to 60% in infants with disseminated disease. Bullous impetigo is an infectious superficial skin condition most often caused by Staphylococcus aureus infection. It is characterized by bullous vesicular lesions on previously untraumatized skin. Candidiasis is characterized by white adherent patches on the tongue, palate, and inner aspects of the cheeks. Congenital syphilis has multisystem manifestations, including hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia.
A pregnant client asks the nurse to explain the meaning of cephalopelvic disproportion. Which explanation should the nurse give to the client?
- A. It means a large for gestational age fetus.
- B. It is the narrow opening between the ischial spines.
- C. There is an uneven size between the fetus presenting part and the pelvis.
- D. The shape of the pelvis is an android shape and is unfavorable for vaginal delivery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cephalopelvic disproportion means a disproportion (or uneven size) between the fetus presenting part and the maternal pelvis. It does not mean a large for gestational age fetus or that the pelvis is an android shape. The narrow opening between the ischial spines is called the transverse measurement.