Nokea
Which is the best technique for the nurse to use when applying the elastic bandage to the client's lower extremity?
- A. Making figure-eight turns with the bandage
- B. Making spiral-reverse turns with the bandage
- C. Making recurrent turns with the bandage
- D. Making spica turns with the bandage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The figure-eight technique provides even compression and support around the ankle joint, stabilizing it while allowing some flexibility. Spiral-reverse turns are better for cylindrical limbs, recurrent turns are used for stumps, and spica turns are typically for larger joints like the hip or shoulder.
You may also like to solve these questions
After the arm cast has been applied, which nursing observation is the best indication that the client may be developing compartment syndrome?
- A. The client's head becomes severe pain.
- B. The client's hand becomes reddened.
- C. The fingers develop muscle spasms.
- D. The radial pulse feels bounding.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Severe pain disproportionate to the injury is a hallmark of compartment syndrome, indicating increased pressure within the cast compromising neurovascular status. Redness, spasms, or a bounding pulse are less specific.
The nurse is preparing the preoperative client for a total hip replacement (THR). Which intervention should the nursing implement postoperatively?
- A. Keep an abduction pillow in place between the legs at all times.
- B. Cough and deep breathe at least every four (4) to five (5) hours.
- C. Turn to both sides every two (2) hours to prevent pressure ulcers.
- D. Sit in a high-seated chair for a flexion of less than 90 degrees.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An abduction pillow prevents hip dislocation post-THR, a critical complication. Coughing, turning, and chair positioning are important but secondary.
The nurse notes during an annual health screening for the 78-year-old client that the client is 1.5 inches shorter than at last year's visit. Which initial screening might the nurse best anticipate for this client?
- A. Bone mineral density (BMD) test
- B. An x-ray of both hips and spine
- C. A bone scan of the hips and spine
- D. A physical check for scoliosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. BMD testing will best determine if the loss of height is due to osteoporosis, a common finding with aging.
The client must take three (3) grams of calcium supplement a day. The medication comes in 500-mg tablets. How many tablets will the client need to take daily?
Correct Answer: 6
Rationale: 3000 mg ÷ 500 mg = 6 tablets daily.
Which antiepileptic medication is associated with gingival hyperplasia?
- A. Gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of gum tissue) is unique to phenytoin (Dilantin) among antiepileptic medications. About 20% of people taking phenytoin have gingival hyperplasia. This can be minimized with thorough oral care.
- B. Valproic acid (Depakote) does not have a side effect of gingival hyperplasia.
- C. Gingival hyperplasia is not a side effect of carbamazepine (Tegretol).
- D. Gingival hyperplasia is not a side effect of phenobarbital (Luminal).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenytoin (Dilantin) is uniquely associated with gingival hyperplasia, which can be mitigated with good oral hygiene.