Nokea
A nurse is reporting a client's laboratory test to the provider to obtain a prescription for warfarin.
Which laboratory test should the nurse report?
- A. INR
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
- E. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The nurse should report the INR (International Normalized Ratio) test because it specifically measures the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy like warfarin. A high INR indicates a higher risk of bleeding, while a low INR indicates a higher risk of clotting. Reporting the INR can help healthcare providers adjust medication dosage to maintain optimal therapeutic levels.
Incorrect choices:
B: Prothrombin time (PT) is related to INR but is less specific for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.
C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Platelet count assesses the number of platelets, not the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy.
E: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess blood volume and oxygen-carrying capacity, not anticoagulant therapy.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is assessing a child who has bacterial pneumonia.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Fever
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Dry skin
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever. When the body is fighting an infection or inflammation, fever is a common manifestation due to the release of pyrogens that reset the body's temperature. Bradycardia (B) is a slow heart rate, not typically associated with infection. Dry skin (C) is more indicative of dehydration or a skin condition. Decreased respiratory rate (D) is not a common manifestation of infection. In this case, fever is the most expected manifestation due to the body's response to an infection.
The nurse is continuing to care for the client.
Diagnostic Results Day 1,
1000:
Appearance cloudy (clear) Color
yellow (yellow)
pH 5.9 (4,6 to 8)
Protein 3+ (negative)
Specific gravity 1.013 (1.005 to 1.03) Leukocyte esterase
negative (negative)
Nitrites negative (negative) Ketones
negative (negative) Crystals negative
(negative) Casts negative (negative)
Glucose trace (negative) WBC 5 (0
to 4)
WBC casts none (none)
RBC 1 (less than or equal to 2) RBC
casts none (none)
Day 1, 1030:
CBC:
Nurses' Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by
acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Day 1, 0930:
Client reports a constant and throbbing headache and rates it as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10. Denies
visual disturbances. +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, Patellar reflex 4+ without
the presence of clonus. Client reports occasional nighttime leg cramps. Reports three fetal
movements within the last 30 min. External fetal monitor applied with a baseline FHR 140/min
with occasional accelerations and moderate variability. No uterine contractions noted
The client is at greatest risk for developing -----and-------
- A. Placental abruption
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Heart failure
- D. Cervical Insufficiency
- E. Seizures
Correct Answer: A,E
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Placental abruption) and E (Seizures) because they are common complications during pregnancy. Placental abruption poses a risk of severe bleeding and fetal distress, leading to adverse outcomes. Seizures, specifically eclampsia, can occur due to uncontrolled hypertension in pregnancy, putting both the mother and baby at risk. Hypoglycemia (B), heart failure (C), and cervical insufficiency (D) are potential complications but are not the greatest risks compared to placental abruption and seizures in this context.
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client.
Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?
- A. Digoxen 250 PO daily
- B. Metoprolol 50 mg PO twice daily
- C. Furosemide 40 mg IV once daily
- D. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Digoxin is commonly prescribed in mcg, not mg. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the dosage unit. Metoprolol (B) is a typical dose and frequency for oral administration. Furosemide (C) is a standard dose and route for IV administration. Acetaminophen (D) is a common dose and frequency for pain management. The other choices are not problematic.
A community health nurse is working with a family that is struggling to adapt following the loss of a family member.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the family to assign specific tasks to individual family members.
- B. Determine the roles of individual family members.
- C. Assist the family to establish a daily routine
- D. Refer the family to a grief support group.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Determine the roles of individual family members. This is the first step because it helps identify the strengths and abilities of each family member, allowing for effective delegation of tasks and responsibilities. By understanding each member's role, the nurse can promote a balanced distribution of duties and enhance the family's ability to cope with the situation. Encouraging the family to assign specific tasks (A) may be premature without knowing each member's capabilities. Establishing a daily routine (C) can come after roles are determined to provide structure. Referring to a grief support group (D) may be necessary but not the first step.
A nurse is caring for a client who repeatedly refuses meals. The nurse overhears assistant personnel telling the client “if you don't eat I'll put restraints on your wrists and feed youâ€.
The nurse should intervene and explain to the AP that this statement constitutes which of the following torts?
- A. Assault
- B. Battery
- C. False imprisonment
- D. Negligence
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault is the intentional act causing the apprehension of harmful or offensive contact. In this scenario, the statement made by the AP creates fear or apprehension of harm, even though no physical contact has occurred yet.
Choice B (Battery) involves actual physical contact, which is not present here. Choice C (False imprisonment) involves restricting someone's movement, not applicable in this situation. Choice D (Negligence) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, which is not the case here. The correct answer, assault, best fits the scenario described.