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Which laboratory test should the nurse report?
- A. INR
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
- E. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The nurse should report the INR (International Normalized Ratio) test because it specifically measures the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy like warfarin. A high INR indicates a higher risk of bleeding, while a low INR indicates a higher risk of clotting. Reporting the INR can help healthcare providers adjust medication dosage to maintain optimal therapeutic levels.
Incorrect choices:
B: Prothrombin time (PT) is related to INR but is less specific for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.
C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Platelet count assesses the number of platelets, not the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy.
E: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess blood volume and oxygen-carrying capacity, not anticoagulant therapy.
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Which of the following food choices is appropriate for this client?
- A. Canned barley soup
- B. Potato pancakes.
- C. Wheat crackers
- D. White flour tortillas
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potato pancakes. This choice is appropriate as it is likely to be well-tolerated by the client. Potatoes are a good source of carbohydrates and can provide energy. Additionally, potato pancakes are easy to digest and can be a good option for someone with digestive issues. On the other hand, A, C, and D contain grains that may be harder to digest for some individuals, especially if they have digestive concerns. Canned barley soup (A) may also contain added preservatives and sodium, which may not be ideal for the client's condition. Wheat crackers (C) can be high in fiber and may be difficult to digest. White flour tortillas (D) are made from refined grains and may not provide the necessary nutrients for the client.
The nurse should identify which of the following situations as an example of interpersonal conflict?
- A. A nurse submits a complaint about another department's handoff reporting.
- B. A nurse feels stressed about an upcoming performance evaluation.
- C. A hospital policy change leads to disagreements among staff members.
- D. Two nurses disagree on how to handle a client's care plan.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it involves a conflict between two individuals, which is a key characteristic of interpersonal conflict. In this scenario, the conflict arises between two nurses regarding the client's care plan, indicating a disagreement in opinions or approaches. This type of conflict typically involves differences in perspectives, values, or goals between individuals. Choices A, B, and C do not involve direct conflicts between individuals but rather focus on complaints, stress, and policy disagreements that do not necessarily involve direct interpersonal conflicts. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate example of interpersonal conflict in this context.
Which finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Spotting
- B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
- C. Soft, relaxed, and non-tender uterus
- D. Fundal height greater than expected for gestational age
- E. Fetal heart rate within normal limits unless significant blood loss occurs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This finding is indicative of placenta previa, a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix. The bright red color indicates fresh bleeding. Spotting (choice A) is more commonly associated with implantation bleeding in early pregnancy. A soft, relaxed, and non-tender uterus (choice C) is not specific to any particular condition. A fundal height greater than expected for gestational age (choice D) could indicate fetal macrosomia or polyhydramnios, but it is not related to the scenario described. While fetal heart rate within normal limits (choice E) is important, it is not the most relevant finding in this case.
The client is at greatest risk for developing -----and-------
- A. Placental abruption
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Heart failure
- D. Cervical Insufficiency
- E. Seizures
Correct Answer: A,E
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Placental abruption) and E (Seizures) because they are common complications during pregnancy. Placental abruption poses a risk of severe bleeding and fetal distress, leading to adverse outcomes. Seizures, specifically eclampsia, can occur due to uncontrolled hypertension in pregnancy, putting both the mother and baby at risk. Hypoglycemia (B), heart failure (C), and cervical insufficiency (D) are potential complications but are not the greatest risks compared to placental abruption and seizures in this context.
Select the 2 findings that require immediate follow-up.
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Duration of contraction
- C. Fetal heart rate
- D. Fetal station
- E. Characteristics of amniotic fluid
Correct Answer: C,E
Rationale: An elevated fetal heart rate and meconium-stained amniotic fluid indicate potential distress, necessitating urgent intervention.