Nokea
Which newborn behavior is normal and does not require immediate concern?
- A. Frequent hiccups
- B. Persistent vomiting
- C. Lethargy for days
- D. High fever
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Frequent hiccups are normal in newborns and typically resolve without intervention, unlike the other symptoms.
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Twenty-four hours after the birth of her first child, the 25-year-old single client tells the nurse that she has several different male sex partners and asks the nurse to recommend an appropriate birth control method for her. Considering her lifestyle, which method of birth control should the nurse suggest?
- A. An intrauterine device (IUD)
- B. Depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate injections
- C. A female condom with nonoxynol-9
- D. A diaphragm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: IUDs offer no protection against STIs. They are recommended for women who are in a stable, mutually monogamous relationship. Depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera) is a long-acting progestin that is highly effective for birth control. A single injection will provide contraception for 3 months but does not offer protection against STIs. A female condom does provide protection against some of the pathogens that cause STIs, and it would be readily available over the counter. A diaphragm offers no protection against STIs.
The pregnant client tells the nurse that she smokes two packs per day (PPD) of cigarettes, has smoked in other pregnancies, and has never had any problems. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “I’m glad that your other pregnancies went well. Smoking can cause both maternal and fetal problems, and it is best if you could quit smoking.”
- B. “You need to stop smoking for the baby’s sake. You could have a spontaneous abortion with this pregnancy if you continue to smoke.”
- C. “Smoking can lead to having a large baby, which can make delivery difficult. You may even need a cesarean section.”
- D. “Smoking less would eliminate the risk for your baby, and you would feel healthier during your pregnancy.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse is acknowledging that the client did not experience problems with her other pregnancies but is also informing the client that smoking can cause maternal and fetal problems during pregnancy. Telling the client to stop smoking for the baby’s sake is confrontational, making the client less likely to listen to the nurse’s teaching. Although spontaneous abortion is associated with tobacco use during pregnancy, the nurse is using a scare tactic rather than therapeutic communication. Smoking can lead to a fetus that is small for gestational age, not a large baby. Decreasing her smoking intake should be suggested; however, it does not eliminate the risk to the baby completely.
The nurse is caring for the client who is 28 hours postpartum. Which assessment findings should prompt the nurse to notify the HCP of possible puerperal infection? Select all that apply.
- A. Oral temperature of 102.2°F (39°C)
- B. Telangiectasis on the neck and chest
- C. Mild abdominal tenderness with palpation
- D. Lochial discharge that is foul smelling
- E. White blood cell count of 16,500 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) or higher after 24 hours postpartum is associated with a puerperal infection. Telangiectasis is red, slightly raised vascular “spiders” that may appear during pregnancy over the neck, thorax, face, or arms and remain or fade during the postpartum period. It is not indicative of an infection. Slight abdominal tenderness with palpation is a normal postpartum finding. Malodorous lochia is a common sign of a puerperal infection. A WBC count of 16,500 is normal for the postpartum client; labor produces a mild pro-inflammatory state.
The 38-year-old pregnant client at 22 weeks’ gestation has just been told she has hydramnios after undergoing a sonogram for size greater than dates. The nurse should further assess for which conditions associated with hydramnios? Select all that apply.
- A. A congenital anomaly
- B. Gestational diabetes
- C. Chronic hypertension
- D. TORCH infections
- E. Preeclampsia
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: In cases of anencephaly, the fetus is thought to urinate excessively because of overstimulation of the cerebrospinal centers, resulting in hydramnios. The nurse should further assess for gestational diabetes. Hydramnios is thought to occur from excessive fetal urination due to fetal hyperglycemia. Infants with mothers infected with toxoplasmosis, rubella, CMV, or herpes simplex virus infections (TORCH) are more likely to have hydramnios due to the inflammatory response and fluid accumulation. Chronic hypertension is not associated with excess amniotic fluid. Preeclampsia is not associated with excess amniotic fluid.
The client, who is 12 days postpartum, telephones the clinic and tells the nurse that she is concerned that she may have an infection because her vaginal discharge has been creamy white for two days now. Which response by the nurse is correct?
- A. “You need to come to the clinic as soon as possible.”
- B. “You’ll need an antibiotic; which pharmacy do you use?”
- C. “Take your temperature and let me know if it is elevated.”
- D. “A creamy white discharge 10 days postpartum is normal.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There is no need to be seen in the clinic; vaginal discharge that turns creamy white 10 days postpartum is normal. The client does not have an infection, and no antibiotic is necessary. There is no reason to take her temperature when the discharge is normal. Creamy white discharge 10 to 21 days postpartum is normal. Her lochia changed color on her 10th postpartum day.