Nokea
Which nursing assessment question should be asked to help determine the client's risk for developing malignant hyperthermia in the perioperative period?
- A. Have you ever had heat exhaustion or heat stroke?
- B. What is the normal range for your body temperature?
- C. Do you or any of your family members have frequent infections?
- D. Do you or any of your family members have problems with general anesthesia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is a genetic disorder in which a combination of anesthetic agents (the muscle relaxant succinylcholine and inhalation agents such as halothanes) triggers uncontrolled skeletal muscle contractions that can quickly lead to a potentially fatal hyperthermia. Questioning the client about the family history of general anesthesia problems may reveal this as a risk for the client. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to this surgical complication.
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The nurse is creating a discharge plan for a postoperative client who had a unilateral adrenalectomy. What area of instruction should the nurse include in the plan to minimize the client's risk for injury?
- A. Teaching the client to maintain a diabetic diet
- B. Encouraging the adoption of a realistic exercise routine
- C. Providing a detailed list of the early signs of a wound infection
- D. Explaining the need for lifelong replacement of all adrenal hormones
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A client who had a unilateral adrenalectomy (one adrenal gland was removed) will be placed on corticosteroids temporarily to avoid a cortisol deficiency; lifelong replacement is not necessary. Corticosteroids will be gradually weaned in the postoperative period until they are discontinued. Also, because of the anti-inflammatory properties of corticosteroids produced by the adrenals, clients who undergo an adrenalectomy are at increased risk of developing wound infections. Because of this increased risk of infection, it is important for the client to know measures to prevent infection, early signs of infection, and what to do if an infection seems to be present.
The nurse is caring for a client who had an orthopedic injury of the leg that required surgery and the application of a cast. Postoperatively, which nursing assessment is of highest priority to assure client safety?
- A. Monitoring for heel breakdown
- B. Monitoring for bladder distention
- C. Monitoring for extremity shortening
- D. Monitoring for blanching ability of toe nail beds
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: With cast application, concern for compartment syndrome development is of the highest priority. If postsurgical edema compromises circulation, the client will demonstrate numbness, tingling, loss of blanching of toenail beds, and pain that will not be relieved by opioids. Although heel breakdown, bladder distention, or extremity lengthening or shortening can occur, these complications are not potentially life-threatening complications.
The nurse is monitoring a client diagnosed with a ruptured appendix for signs of peritonitis. The nurse should assess for which manifestations of this complication? Select all that apply.
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Distended abdomen
- C. Subnormal temperature
- D. Rigid, boardlike abdomen
- E. Diminished bowel sounds
- F. Inability to pass flatus or feces
Correct Answer: B,D,E,F
Rationale: Peritonitis is an acute inflammation of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, the endothelial lining of the abdominal cavity. Clinical manifestations include distended abdomen; a rigid, boardlike abdomen; diminished bowel sounds; inability to pass flatus or feces; abdominal pain (localized, poorly localized, or referred to the shoulder or thorax); anorexia, nausea, and vomiting; rebound tenderness in the abdomen; high fever; tachycardia; dehydration from the high fever; decreased urinary output; hiccups; and possible compromise in respiratory status.
A client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is at 36 weeks' gestation. The client has had weekly reactive nonstress tests for the last 3 weeks. This week, the nonstress test was nonreactive after 40 minutes. Based on these results, the nurse should prepare the client for which intervention?
- A. A contraction stress test
- B. Immediate induction of labor
- C. Hospitalization with continuous fetal monitoring
- D. A return appointment in 2 days to repeat the nonstress test
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nonreactive nonstress test after 40 minutes indicates that the fetus did not show the expected heart rate accelerations, which may suggest fetal compromise, particularly in a high-risk pregnancy such as one with diabetes mellitus. The next step is typically a contraction stress test to further assess fetal well-being by evaluating the fetal heart rate response to uterine contractions. Immediate induction or hospitalization may be premature without further evaluation, and repeating the nonstress test in 2 days delays necessary assessment.
A client prescribed lithium carbonate for the treatment of bipolar disorder has a medication blood level of 1.6 mEq/L (1.6 mmol/L). Which assessment question should the nurse ask to determine whether the client is experiencing signs of lithium toxicity associated with this level?
- A. Do you hear ringing in your ears?
- B. Have you noted that your vision is blurred?
- C. Have you fallen recently because you are dizzy?
- D. Have you been experiencing any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Normal lithium levels are between 0.8 to 1.2 mEq/L (0.8 to 1.2 mmol/L). One of the most common early signs of lower level lithium toxicity is gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances such as nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The assessment questions in options 1, 2, and 3 are related to the findings in lithium toxicity at higher levels.