Nokea
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client?
- A. Loosen pressure dressings on wounds
- B. Use assistance to lift a client in bed
- C. Check temperature of water used in a sponge bath
- D. Position the client in a prone position
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client, nurses can implement various interventions. Checking the temperature of the water used in a sponge bath is crucial to prevent burns from water that is too hot or discomfort from water that is too cold. This intervention addresses a common source of discomfort for clients during personal care. Loosening pressure dressings on wounds, although important for wound care, does not directly address environmental stimuli. Using assistance to lift a client in bed is about proper positioning and preventing injury rather than reducing environmental stimuli. Positioning the client prone is not a suitable intervention for reducing discomfort caused by environmental stimuli.
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Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?
- A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
- B. Only the patient
- C. Only the healthcare proxy
- D. The doctor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.
Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?
- A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
- B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
- C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
- D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.
A client is about to have a TENS unit attached for pain relief. Which of the following actions is most appropriate in this situation?
- A. Inform the client that he may experience tingling sensations.
- B. Connect the TENS unit before the client goes to bed for the night.
- C. Inform the client that the TENS unit may have pain-reducing effects for 10 to 15 days.
- D. After treatment, inform the client that he may not use a TENS unit again for at least 2 weeks.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When attaching a TENS unit for pain relief, it is essential to inform the client that he may experience tingling sensations. This is a common sensation experienced when using a TENS unit, but it should not cause muscle twitching. The therapeutic effects of a TENS unit usually last between 3 to 5 days. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to connect the TENS unit before bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as stating that the TENS unit may have pain-reducing effects for 10 to 15 days is inaccurate, as the effects typically last 3 to 5 days. Choice D is incorrect because there is no guideline suggesting that the client cannot use a TENS unit again for at least 2 weeks after treatment.
Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates a possible nutritional deficiency?
- A. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen
- B. Presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue
- C. Straight arms and legs
- D. Pale conjunctiva
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A client with poor nutritional intake may have pale mucous membranes surrounding the eye, or the conjunctiva. This area should normally be pink, indicating good circulation and a lack of irritation or dryness. Improper nutrition can manifest as numerous signs in the body, including bowed legs, pale mucous membranes, a smooth or beefy tongue, and poor muscle tone. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen is not a sign of nutritional deficiency but rather of excess fat deposition. The presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue is normal and not indicative of a nutritional deficiency. Straight arms and legs are also typical anatomical features and not specifically related to nutritional deficiencies.
A nursing care plan states, 'Assist the patient to the bedside commode PRN.' When will this patient get this assistance to the commode?
- A. Whenever needed
- B. At bedtime
- C. During the night
- D. During the day
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Whenever needed.' The abbreviation 'PRN' stands for 'pro re nata,' which translates to 'as needed' or 'whenever necessary.' This means that the patient will receive assistance to the commode whenever they require it, based on their individual needs and condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because 'PRN' does not specify a specific time like bedtime, during the night, or during the day; instead, it indicates assistance based on the patient's needs.