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A PaCO 2 of 48 mm Hg is associated with what outcome?
- A. Hyperventilation
- B. Hypoventilation
- C. Increased absorption of O
- D. Increased excretion of HCO
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoventilation. A PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg indicates an elevated level of carbon dioxide in the blood, which is typically seen in hypoventilation where the lungs are not effectively removing CO2. Hypoventilation leads to respiratory acidosis. Option A is incorrect because hyperventilation would decrease PaCO2 levels. Option C is incorrect as it does not directly relate to PaCO2 levels. Option D is incorrect as increased excretion of HCO3- would not directly affect PaCO2 levels.
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Which action is a priority for the nurse to take when the low-pressure alarm sounds for a patient who has an arterial line in the left radial artery?
- A. Fast flush of the arterial line.
- B. Check the left hand for pallor.
- C. Assess for cardiac dysrhythmias.
- D. Rezero the monitoring equipment.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): When the low-pressure alarm sounds for a patient with an arterial line, the nurse should assess for cardiac dysrhythmias first. This is because a sudden drop in pressure could indicate a serious issue affecting the heart's ability to pump effectively. Identifying and addressing any cardiac dysrhythmias promptly is crucial for patient safety.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Fast flush of the arterial line - This would not address the underlying cause of the low-pressure alarm and may not be necessary.
B: Check the left hand for pallor - While assessing perfusion is important, it is not the priority when the alarm indicates a potential cardiac issue.
D: Rezero the monitoring equipment - While important for accuracy, it is not the priority when the alarm indicates a potential cardiac concern.
The nurse is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care establishes an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document that indicates a successful outcome?
- A. Demonstrates adequate fluid intake and output.
- B. Verbalizes abdominal comfort without pressure.
- C. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.
- D. Voids at least 1000 mL between 7 am and 3 pm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The objective is for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm.
Step 2: Choice C states that the client drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift, totaling 1200 mL (240 mL x 5) which exceeds the required amount.
Step 3: Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it demonstrates successful achievement of the objective by ensuring the client has ingested enough fluid within the specified time frame.
Step 4: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the specific objective of fluid intake set for the client. Option A focuses on intake and output, option B relates to abdominal comfort, and option D is about voiding, none of which directly address the specified objective of fluid ingestion.
A patient at high risk for pulmonary embolism is receiving enoxaparin. The nurse should provide the patient with what explanation?
- A. “I’m going to contact the pharmacist to see if you can take this medication by mouth.”
- B. “This injection is being given to prevent blood clots fr om forming.”
- C. “This medication will dissolve any blood clots you migabhirtb .gcoemt./”te st
- D. “I will contact your primary care provide to discuss wh y you are getting this medication.” t
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: “This injection is being given to prevent blood clots from forming.” Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. It is administered through injection, not orally (A). Enoxaparin does not dissolve existing blood clots (C). Contacting the primary care provider to discuss the medication is not necessary in this scenario (D). The correct choice emphasizes the purpose of enoxaparin in preventing new blood clots.
The nurse uses the Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation (SBAR) format to communicate a change in patient status to a healthcare provider. In which order should the nurse make the following statements?
- A. The patient needs to be evaluated immediately and may need intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- B. The patient was admitted yesterday with heart failure and has been receiving furosemide (Lasix) for diuresis, but urine output has been low.
- C. The patient has crackles audible throughout the posterior chest and the most recent oxygen saturation is 89%. Her condition is very unstable.
- D. This is the nurse on the surgical unit. After assessing the patient, I am very concerned about increased shortness of breath over the past hour.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Start with Background - statement B provides relevant background information about the patient's current condition and why there is a need for communication.
Step 2: Move on to Situation - statement D sets the current situation where the nurse expresses concern about the patient's symptom.
Step 3: Next is Assessment - statement C details the nurse's assessment findings, highlighting the critical aspects of the patient's condition.
Step 4: End with Recommendation - statement A suggests the necessary action to be taken based on the assessment findings. This order ensures a clear and structured communication process.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as the recommendation should come after providing background, situation, and assessment.
- Choice C is incorrect as assessment details should precede the patient's critical condition.
- Choice D is incorrect as the situation should be explained before expressing concern.
After the change-of-shift report, which patient should the progressive care nurse assess first?
- A. Patient who was extubated in the morning and has a temperature of 101.4°F (38.6°C).
- B. Patient with bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) for sleep apnea whose respiratory rate is 16.
- C. Patient with arterial pressure monitoring who is 2 hours post percutaneous coronary intervention and needs to void.
- D. Patient who is receiving IV heparin for venous thromboembolism and has a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 98 seconds.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The patient receiving IV heparin with a PTT of 98 seconds is at risk for bleeding due to the therapeutic range of 60-80 seconds. Assessing this patient first is crucial to prevent potential bleeding complications. A high PTT indicates the blood is not clotting properly, increasing the risk of bleeding. Prompt assessment and possible adjustment of heparin infusion are needed.
A: The patient with a temperature of 101.4°F may have a fever but is not at immediate risk compared to the patient with a high PTT.
B: The patient on BiPAP with a respiratory rate of 16 is stable and does not require immediate assessment.
C: The patient post-percutaneous coronary intervention needing to void is a routine need and does not require immediate attention compared to the patient with a critical lab value.