Which of the ff. interventions can help minimize complications related to Hypercalcemia?
- A. Encourage 3 to 4 L of fluid daily
- B. Place the patient on bed rest
- C. Have the patient cough and deep
- D. Apply heat to painful areas breathe every 2 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct:
1. Hypercalcemia can lead to dehydration due to increased urine output.
2. Encouraging 3 to 4 L of fluid daily helps prevent dehydration and promote renal excretion of excess calcium.
3. Adequate hydration reduces the risk of kidney stones and other complications associated with hypercalcemia.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
- Choice B (bed rest) does not directly address hypercalcemia complications.
- Choice C (cough and deep breathe) is unrelated to managing hypercalcemia.
- Choice D (apply heat to painful areas) does not address the underlying cause of hypercalcemia or its complications.
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. A client is diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should anticipate which laboratory test result?
- A. Decreased serum sodium level
- B. Increased blood urea nitrogen
- C. Decreased serum creatinine level (BUN) level
- D. Increased hematocrit
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum sodium level. In SIADH, there is an excessive release of ADH, causing water retention and dilution of sodium in the blood. This leads to hyponatremia. B: Increased blood urea nitrogen and C: Decreased serum creatinine level are not typically associated with SIADH. D: Increased hematocrit is not a typical finding in SIADH, as it is more related to dehydration. Therefore, the most anticipated laboratory test result in a client with SIADH is a decreased serum sodium level due to dilutional hyponatremia.
Olympic gymnast Ms. Slovenski sufferd a great fall and suffered a great fall and fractured her femur. Approximately after 20 hours in the hospital she became dyspneic, tachypneic, and with scattered crackles in her lung fields. She is coughing up large amounts of thick, white sputum. The nurse correctly interprets this as:
- A. respiratory compromise related to inhalation of smoke
- B. pneumonia related to prolonged bedrest
- C. fat embolism syndrome related to femur fracture
- D. hypovolemic shock related to multiple trauma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: fat embolism syndrome related to femur fracture. Fat embolism syndrome occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and travel to the lungs, causing respiratory distress. In this case, the patient's femur fracture likely led to fat embolism, explaining her dyspnea, tachypnea, crackles, and thick sputum. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the patient's presentation and history, making them incorrect. Choice A suggests smoke inhalation, which is not supported by the scenario. Choice B mentions pneumonia from bedrest, which is not a common complication of immobility. Choice D proposes hypovolemic shock from multiple trauma, which does not explain the respiratory symptoms and sputum production observed in the patient.
A 23 y.o. woman is seen at an outpatient clinic for a routine Pap smear. When questioned, she states she is deciding whether to engage in sexual activity with a man she is just getting to know. She asks how she can tell if he has an STD. Which response by the nurse is best?
- A. “If the man appears clean and has been conscientious about using condoms, he is likely infection free.”
- B. “Look carefully for signs of lesions before engaging in sexual activity.”
- C. “Be sure to use either a male or female condom to protect against possible transmission of infection.”
- D. “An examination by a physician with diagnostic testing is the only way to know if he is infection free.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of medical examination and diagnostic testing to determine if the man has an STD.
Step 2: Visual inspection (choice B) is not reliable as some STDs may not present with visible symptoms.
Step 3: Relying solely on appearance and condom use (choices A and C) does not guarantee protection against all STDs.
Step 4: Choice D is the best option as it advocates for seeking professional medical advice for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
An adult has been diagnosed with some type of anemia. The results of his blood tests showed: decreased WBC, normal RBC, decreased HCT, decreased Hgb. Based on these data, which of the following nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize as the most important?
- A. Potential for infection
- B. Self care deficit
- C. Alteration in infection
- D. Fluid volume excess
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potential for infection. The decreased WBC count indicates reduced ability to fight off infections, making this the priority nursing diagnosis. Normal RBC count rules out anemia-related complications. Decreased HCT and Hgb indicate possible anemia but do not directly relate to infection risk. Choices B and C are not as critical as the potential for infection due to the significant impact on the individual's health and well-being. Choice D, fluid volume excess, is not directly related to the blood test results provided.
Under which of the ff situations should a nurse notify the physician when caring for a client with lymphangitis? Choose all that apply
- A. Affected area appears to enlarge
- B. Red streaks extend up the arm or leg
- C. Additional lymph nodes become
- D. Liver and spleen become enlarged
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Lymphangitis is an inflammation of lymphatic vessels.
2. If the affected area appears to enlarge, it indicates possible worsening or spreading of the infection.
3. Nurse should notify the physician for further evaluation and treatment.
4. Red streaks extending up the arm or leg (B) are common signs of lymphangitis, not necessarily requiring immediate physician notification.
5. Additional lymph nodes becoming (C) is a normal response to infection and may not warrant immediate physician notification.
6. Liver and spleen enlargement (D) are not directly related to lymphangitis and do not require immediate notification.