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Which of the ff. is the best explanation of emphysema for a newly diagnosed patient?
- A. "You have inflamed bronchioles, which causes a lot of secretions."
- B. "Your lungs have lost some of their elasticity, and air gets trapped."
- C. "The blood supply to your lungs is damaged, so you can't absorb oxygen."
- D. "You have large dilated sacs of sputum in your lungs."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best explanation of emphysema for a newly diagnosed patient is that "Your lungs have lost some of their elasticity, and air gets trapped." This explanation succinctly captures the key characteristic of emphysema, which is the destruction of the alveoli in the lungs leading to the loss of elasticity. When the alveoli lose their elasticity, they are not able to effectively expel air during exhalation, causing air to become trapped in the lungs. This trapped air leads to difficulty breathing, shortness of breath, and other respiratory symptoms commonly associated with emphysema. This explanation is clear and focuses on the primary pathology of emphysema, making it the most appropriate choice for a newly diagnosed patient to understand their condition.
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Which of the ff nursing interventions may reduce hemostasis and decrease the potential for thrombophlebitis for a client with a neurologic disorder?
- A. Remove and reapply elastic stockings
- B. Keep extremities at neutral position
- C. Change the clients position
- D. Use a flotation mattress NEUROMUSCULAR DISORDERS
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the extremities at a neutral position for a client with a neurologic disorder can help reduce hemostasis and decrease the potential for thrombophlebitis. This positioning helps maintain proper blood flow and prevents excessive pressure on the veins, which can lead to blood clots. Removing and reapplying elastic stockings, changing the client's position, and using a flotation mattress may have their own benefits, but in this case, keeping the extremities at a neutral position is the most direct and effective intervention to address the issue of hemostasis and thrombophlebitis for a client with a neurologic disorder.
The nurse is conducting a staff in-service on congenital heart defects. Which structural defect constitutes tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- B. Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
- D. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is a combination of four structural defects in the heart. These include pulmonic stenosis (narrowing of the pulmonary valve or artery), ventricular septal defect (hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart), overriding aorta (aorta positioned directly over the ventricular septal defect), and right ventricular hypertrophy (enlargement of the right ventricle due to increased workload). Therefore, the correct combination of defects that constitute tetralogy of Fallot is pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy, which is option A.
All the following are recognizable teratogens EXCEPT
- A. ethanol
- B. antiepileptic medications
- C. toxoplasmosis
- D. hypothermia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypothermia is not traditionally considered a teratogen compared to others listed.
A 1-year-old with acute renal failure (ARF) is edematous with minimal urine output. Vital signs: HR 146, BP 176/92, RR 42; the child has nasal flaring and retractions. Despite oral Kayexalate, serum potassium continues to rise. Which treatment will most benefit the child?
- A. Additional rectal Kayexalate.
- B. Intravenous furosemide.
- C. Endotracheal intubation and ventilatory assistance.
- D. Placement of a Tenckhoff catheter for peritoneal dialysis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When ARF deteriorates and electrolyte imbalances worsen, peritoneal dialysis (via a Tenckhoff catheter) is indicated.
Which is the most common causative agent of bacterial endocarditis?
- A. Staphylococcus albus
- B. Streptococcus hemolyticus
- C. Staphylococcus albicans
- D. Streptococcus viridans
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Streptococcus viridans is the most common causative agent of bacterial endocarditis. This group of bacteria consists of various species, including S. sanguinis and S. mutans, which normally reside in the oral cavity and are commonly associated with endocarditis following dental procedures. Streptococcus viridans can enter the bloodstream due to dental work, oral infections, or trauma to the oral tissues, and cause infective endocarditis by adhering to damaged heart valves or endocardium. Staphylococcus aureus and Enterococcus species are other common pathogens associated with endocarditis, but Streptococcus viridans remains the most prevalent causative agent.