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Which of the ff is TRUE about health education in public health?
- A. It only done by professionals like nurses
- B. It is every health worker responsibility
- C. It remains constant
- D. It is seldom use in public health setting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Health education is a crucial component of public health aimed at promoting health, preventing diseases, and empowering individuals to make informed decisions about their health. It is not limited to only professionals like nurses but is the responsibility of every health worker across various disciplines. Health workers, including doctors, community health workers, public health educators, and others, play a vital role in delivering health education to the community they serve. By ensuring that health education is a shared responsibility among all health workers, a more comprehensive and effective approach to public health promotion can be achieved. It is continuously evolving to adapt to changing health needs and challenges, making it dynamic rather than remaining constant. Therefore, option B is the most accurate statement regarding health education in public health.
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The patient asked Nurse Vera when is the best time to visit the clinic for her 1st prenatal care. Which should be the APPROPRIATE answer of the nurse?
- A. Second trimester
- B. Third trimester
- C. Before delivery
- D. First trimester
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best time to visit the clinic for the first prenatal care is during the first trimester of pregnancy, ideally before the 12th week. This is because early prenatal care is crucial for monitoring the health of both the mother and the developing baby, identifying any risk factors or complications early on, and initiating important interventions such as prenatal vitamins and screenings. By starting prenatal care early in the first trimester, potential issues can be identified and addressed promptly, leading to better pregnancy outcomes. It is important for pregnant women to seek early prenatal care to ensure a healthy pregnancy and delivery.
A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
- B. Central retinal artery occlusion
- C. Optic neuritis
- D. Corneal ulcer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described is characteristic of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition typically presents with sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye may appear red due to conjunctival injection, and there may be a steamy cornea due to corneal edema. The mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil is a key finding in angle-closure glaucoma, as the iris bombe (forward movement of the peripheral iris) blocks the drainage angle, leading to increased intraocular pressure. If left untreated, acute angle-closure glaucoma can result in irreversible vision loss. Immediate intervention is crucial to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for definitive treatment is necessary in cases of suspected acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Nurses agree to be advocates for their patients. Practice of advocacy calls for the nurse to:
- A. Seek out the nursing supervisor in conflicting situations
- B. Work to understand the law as it applies to the client's clinical condition.
- C. Assess the client's point of view and prepare to articulate this point of view.
- D. Document all clinical changes in the medical record in a timely manner.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The practice of advocacy in nursing involves assessing the client's point of view and preparing to articulate this viewpoint. Advocacy requires that nurses actively listen to their patients, understand their perspectives, and ensure that their needs and wishes are communicated effectively within the healthcare team. By advocating for the client's point of view, nurses can help empower their patients to make informed decisions about their care and ensure that their best interests are always prioritized.
A woman in active labor presents with prolonged second stage, characterized by ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?
- A. Pelvic floor dysfunction
- B. Maternal fatigue
- C. Fetal macrosomia
- D. Uterine hyperstimulation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pelvic floor dysfunction can contribute to a prolonged second stage of labor by impairing the ability of the woman to effectively push during contractions. This can result in inefficient pushing efforts and slow fetal descent. The nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of pelvic floor dysfunction, such as difficulty controlling bowel movements or urine leakage, as addressing this issue may help improve the progress of labor. Maternal fatigue, fetal macrosomia (larger than average baby size), and uterine hyperstimulation are other factors that can impact labor but are less likely to specifically contribute to ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent in the second stage of labor.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the tendons surrounding the shoulder joint, leading to pain and restricted movement?
- A. Rotator cuff tear
- B. Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)
- C. Bursitis
- D. Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bursitis is characterized by inflammation of the bursa, which is a small, fluid-filled sac that cushions and reduces friction between bones, tendons, and muscles near joints. In the shoulder, bursitis commonly affects the subacromial bursa, located between the rotator cuff tendons and the top of the shoulder blade. The inflammation of this bursa can lead to pain and restricted movement around the shoulder joint.