Pediatric Emergency Nursing PICO Questions

Pediatric Emergency Nursing PICO Questions Related

Review Pediatric Emergency Nursing PICO Questions related questions and content

Which of the ff symptoms is observed in the client with Right Sided Heart Failure?

  • A. Dependent pitting edema
  • B. Orthopnea
  • C. Exertional dyspnea
  • D. Hemoptysis CARING FOR CLIENTS UNDERGOING CARDIOVASCULAR SURGERY
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Right-sided heart failure is characterized by the inability of the right side of the heart to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid accumulation in the systemic venous system. This fluid overload typically manifests as signs of congestion in the peripheral tissues. Dependent pitting edema is a classic symptom of right-sided heart failure, where swelling is noted in the lower extremities and sacral area, worsening later in the day due to the effects of gravity. Orthopnea (B) and exertional dyspnea (C) are more indicative of left-sided heart failure, where congestion occurs in the pulmonary system. Hemoptysis (D) refers to coughing up blood and is not a classic symptom of heart failure but may be seen in conditions such as pulmonary embolism or infection.

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Pulses can be graded according to certain criteria. Which is a description of a normal pulse?

  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In grading pulses, the normal pulse is typically designated as +1. This indicates a pulse that is easily felt, normal in strength, and corresponds to a healthy pulse rate. A +1 pulse is considered regular, not too weak or too strong, and is indicative of good cardiovascular health. Any abnormalities in pulse strength or rate would be graded differently.

A 1-year-old with acute renal failure (ARF) is edematous with minimal urine output. Vital signs: HR 146, BP 176/92, RR 42; the child has nasal flaring and retractions. Despite oral Kayexalate, serum potassium continues to rise. Which treatment will most benefit the child?

  • A. Additional rectal Kayexalate.
  • B. Intravenous furosemide.
  • C. Endotracheal intubation and ventilatory assistance.
  • D. Placement of a Tenckhoff catheter for peritoneal dialysis.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When ARF deteriorates and electrolyte imbalances worsen, peritoneal dialysis (via a Tenckhoff catheter) is indicated.

An 11-month-old girl infant is found to have low weight and height consistent with FTT. She was exclusively breast feeding till the age of 4 month, and then artificial milk-formula was added. She has had a normal growth pattern till the age of 6 month when the mother introduced juices and cereals. Examination is unremarkable apart from significant decline of normal growth pattern. Of the following, the MOST likely cause is

  • A. failed breast feeding
  • B. improper formula preparation
  • C. congenital syndromes
  • D. congenital infections
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Improper formula preparation can lead to inadequate nutrition, causing FTT. This scenario suggests a dietary issue rather than congenital or infectious causes.

You are evaluating a 9-year-old boy child with ALL who recently develops relapse; an important statement that should be mentioned to his parents is

  • A. testicular relapse occurs in the majority of boys with ALL
  • B. such relapse occurs as painful swelling of one or both testes
  • C. the diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasonography
  • D. the majority of affected boys can be successfully retreated, and the survival rate is good
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Most boys with testicular relapse can be successfully treated, and their overall survival remains favorable.

To prevent infection in a patient with a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system in place, the nurse should;

  • A. Use aseptic technique for the insertion site.
  • B. Use clean technique for cleansing connections and aseptic technique for the insertion site.
  • C. Use sterile technique when cleansing the insertion site
  • D. Close any leaks in the tubing with tape. SITUATION: Mr. Dela Isla, a client with early Dementia exhibits thought process disturbances.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To prevent infection in a patient with a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system in place, the nurse should use aseptic technique for the insertion site. Aseptic technique involves maintaining a sterile field to prevent the introduction of microorganisms that could lead to infection. Using aseptic technique specifically for the insertion site helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the patient's intracranial system, reducing the chances of infection. Additionally, maintaining a strict aseptic technique is crucial for preventing complications and ensuring patient safety when managing intracranial pressure monitoring systems.

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