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Which of the ff. type of eyedrops does the nurse understand is given to constrict the pupil, permitting aqueous humor to flow around the lens?
- A. Osmotic
- B. Mydriatic
- C. Myotic
- D. Cycloplegic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Myotic. Myotic eyedrops constrict the pupil, allowing aqueous humor to flow around the lens. Myotic agents, such as pilocarpine, work by stimulating the sphincter muscle of the iris. Osmotic eyedrops (A) reduce intraocular pressure, mydriatic eyedrops (B) dilate the pupil, and cycloplegic eyedrops (D) paralyze the ciliary muscle to prevent accommodation.
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When teaching a client about insulin administration, the nurse should include which instruction?
- A. “Administer insulin after the first meal of the day.”
- B. “Inject insulin at a 45-degree angle into the deltoid muscle.”
- C. “Shake the insulin vial vigorously before withdrawing the medication.”
- D. “Draw up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because drawing up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe prevents contamination. Clear insulin is drawn up first to avoid clouding from the cloudy insulin. This ensures accurate dosing and prevents potential medication errors.
A: Incorrect. Administering insulin after the first meal may lead to hypoglycemia if the client skips or delays meals.
B: Incorrect. Insulin should not be injected into the deltoid muscle as it can lead to inconsistent absorption rates.
C: Incorrect. Vigorously shaking the insulin vial can cause bubbles, affecting the accuracy of the dose and potentially altering its effectiveness.
Which of the ff. would the nurse explain to the patient is indicated by a Snellen chart finding 20/80?
- A. The eye can see at 80 feet what the normal eye can see at 20 feet.
- B. The eye can see at 20 feet what the normal eye can see at 80 feet.
- C. The eye can see four times what the normal eye can see.
- D. The eye sees normally.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a Snellen chart reading of 20/80 means the patient can see at 20 feet what a normal eye can see at 80 feet. This indicates that the patient's vision is below average. Choice A is incorrect because it reverses the numerator and denominator. Choice C is incorrect because it does not accurately represent the Snellen chart findings. Choice D is incorrect because 20/80 is not considered normal vision.
Which of the ff. nursing actions prepares a patient for a lumbar puncture?
- A. Administering enemas until clear
- B. Positioning the patient on his or her side
- C. Removing all metal jewelry
- D. Removing the patient’s dentures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positioning the patient on his or her side. This is essential for a lumbar puncture as it helps to open up the spinal spaces, making it easier and safer for the procedure. Positioning the patient on their side also helps prevent complications such as nerve damage or spinal fluid leakage.
A: Administering enemas until clear is unnecessary and not directly related to preparing a patient for a lumbar puncture.
C: Removing all metal jewelry is important to prevent interference with imaging studies, but it is not directly related to preparing for a lumbar puncture.
D: Removing the patient’s dentures is not specifically required for a lumbar puncture procedure.
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s database for significant changes and discovers that the patient has not voided in over 8 hours. The patient’s kidney function lab results are abnormal, and the patient’s oral intake has significantly decreased since previous shifts. Which step of the nursing process should the nurse proceed to after this review?
- A. Diagnosis
- B. Planning NursingStoreRN
- C. Implementation
- D. Evaluation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diagnosis. The nurse should proceed to the diagnosis step of the nursing process after reviewing the patient's data. In this step, the nurse will analyze the information gathered to identify the patient's health problems and needs. Given the patient's lack of voiding, abnormal kidney function, and decreased oral intake, the nurse needs to determine the underlying issues contributing to these findings. This analysis will guide the nurse in developing a plan of care to address the patient's specific health concerns.
Choice B: Planning would be premature without a clear understanding of the patient's health problems, needs, and contributing factors. Choice C: Implementation would involve carrying out interventions without a thorough understanding of the patient's health issues. Choice D: Evaluation comes after the implementation of interventions to assess their effectiveness, which cannot be done without a clear diagnosis.
The nurse in the postoperative unit prepares to receive a client after a balloon angioplasty of the carotid artery. Which of the ff items of priority should the nurse keep at the bedside for such client?
- A. Blood pressure apparatus
- B. IV infusion stand
- C. Call bell
- D. Endotracheal intubation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. A: Blood pressure apparatus is essential to monitor for any signs of bleeding or clot formation after carotid angioplasty.
2. B: IV infusion stand is important but not the priority for immediate postoperative monitoring.
3. C: Call bell is important for the client to call for assistance but not the priority for immediate postoperative care.
4. D: Endotracheal intubation is not necessary after a carotid angioplasty and is not a priority item for bedside care.
Summary: Monitoring blood pressure is crucial for detecting complications post carotid angioplasty. IV stand, call bell, and endotracheal intubation are important but not the priority in this scenario.