Nokea
Which of the ff. would the nurse explain to a patient is the main purpose of a hearing aid?
- A. Amplify background noise
- B. Amplify musical sounds
- C. Occlude the ear
- D. Improve ability to hear
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The main purpose of a hearing aid is to improve the patient's ability to hear. Hearing aids are devices designed to amplify sound for individuals with hearing loss or difficulty hearing. They do not amplify background noise or musical sounds specifically; instead, they are meant to enhance the overall perception of sounds to help individuals better understand speech and communicate effectively. Moreover, hearing aids do not occlude the ear, but rather are used to transmit sound into the ear canal to make sounds louder and clearer for the wearer.
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Which blood gas analyses are most indicative of respiratory acidosis?
- A. pH = 7.22, PCO2 = 55 mmHg, HCO3 = 30 mEq/L.
- B. pH = 7.28, PCO2 = 45 mmHg, HCO3 = 15 mEq/L.
- C. pH = 7.34, PCO2 = 35 mmHg, HCO3 = 25 mEq/L.
- D. pH = 7.40, PCO2 = 25 mmHg, HCO3 = 30 mEq/L.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is indicated by a low pH and elevated PCO2, as seen in option A.
A client has a serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl. During the physical examination, the nurse expects to assess:
- A. Trousseau's sign
- B. Hegar's sign
- C. Homan's sign
- D. Goodell's sign
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client with a low serum calcium level (hypocalcemia) is at risk for exhibiting Trousseau's sign. Trousseau's sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia characterized by carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff on the arm above the systolic pressure for a few minutes. This spasm occurs due to the increased neuromuscular irritability caused by low calcium levels. Therefore, a nurse assessing a client with a serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl should expect to assess Trousseau's sign.
Children with ALL who carry poor outcome include all the following EXCEPT
- A. age younger than 1 year and older than 10 year
- B. T-cell immunophenotype
- C. hyperdiploidy chromosomal abnormality
- D. initial leukocyte count of > 50,000
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperdiploidy is generally associated with a favorable prognosis in ALL, unlike other listed factors.
Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
- A. 30-year old woman taking contraceptives
- B. 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant
- C. 40-year old woman with three children
- D. 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One of the major risk factors for ovarian cancer is nulliparity, which means never having been pregnant. This is because pregnancy and childbirth have a protective effect against ovarian cancer. Women who have never been pregnant are at a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to women who have had children. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the risk increasing as women get older. Therefore, the 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant has the highest risk of ovarian cancer among the given clients.
A 14-year-old boy and his parents are concerned about bilateral breast enlargement. The nurse's discussion of this should be based on which statement?
- A. This is usually benign and temporary.
- B. This is usually caused by Klinefelter syndrome.
- C. Administration of estrogen effectively reduces gynecomastia.
- D. Administration of testosterone effectively reduces gynecomastia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement is that bilateral breast enlargement in a 14-year-old boy is usually benign and temporary. This condition, known as gynecomastia, is commonly seen during puberty due to hormonal changes. It typically resolves on its own without the need for intervention. It is important for the nurse to reassure the boy and his parents that this is a normal occurrence and should not be a cause for major concern. It is crucial to address any underlying anxieties and provide education on the natural course of puberty-related changes.