Nokea
Which of the following abides by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?
- A. A nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee because he has left-sided paralysis
- B. A nurse is allowed to have a leave of absence to recover after a back injury
- C. A nurse is mandated to receive 12 weeks off of work after having a baby
- D. A nurse manager must hire a nurse who uses a walker for mobility
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in employment practices, ensuring equal opportunities for qualified individuals. Therefore, a nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee simply because the individual has left-sided paralysis. Doing so would be considered discriminatory under the ADA. Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with ADA requirements. Choice B involves medical leave, which can be covered under a different law; choice C refers to maternity leave, which is protected under other regulations; and choice D involves a hiring decision based on a mobility aid, not the individual's qualifications, which does not fall under ADA guidelines.
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Which of the following is a function of risk management?
- A. To consider the problems that arise if errors happen and their effects on the healthcare environment
- B. To identify how nursing care responds to specific client problems
- C. To view clients as customers and decide what actions will provide a satisfying healthcare experience
- D. To analyze physician-nurse relationships and determine where collaboration efforts can improve
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The function of risk management in healthcare is to assess and address potential risks that could lead to errors and their effects on the healthcare environment. This involves identifying, evaluating, and prioritizing risks to minimize their impact and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the core purpose of risk management in healthcare. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary focus of risk management, which is the proactive management of risks to ensure patient safety and quality care.
Jack is a 2-month-old with a diagnosis of spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) type I. He has been admitted to the hospital for progressive respiratory difficulty. His parents have been informed that if he is not placed on ventilatory support, he will continue to decompensate and die of respiratory failure. Jack's physician discusses the poor prognosis of Jack's condition, and tells the parents that he will not be able to be removed from ventilatory support once it is initiated, due to his progressive neurological disease. After much discussion, the parents have decided to decline ventilatory support, agree to a do not resuscitate (DNR) order, and request hospice care for Jack. Another parent heard them discussing Jack's situation in the waiting room and says she could never do that to her baby. What is the most appropriate response to this parent?
- A. You never know what you'll do until you're in that situation.
- B. I can't discuss another patient's situation.
- C. They have been through too much already.
- D. You can contact administration with your concerns.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In healthcare settings, privacy regulations prevent professionals from discussing patient situations with individuals not involved in that patient's care. Maintaining patient confidentiality is crucial to protect sensitive information. In this scenario, sharing details about Jack's situation with the parent who overheard the conversation would breach confidentiality. It is important to handle such situations delicately, especially in emotional environments like intensive care unit waiting rooms. While empathy and support are essential, it is equally crucial to respect patient privacy and confidentiality. Therefore, responding with 'I can't discuss another patient's situation' is the most appropriate and professional response in this context.
OSHA has very strict standards for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or patients who have been exposed to them. These regulations include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Respiratory protection must be provided to all employees who might be exposed.
- B. Training on respiratory protection must be provided.
- C. Employers must provide personal protective equipment to all employees.
- D. All ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: OSHA regulations for hospital employees dealing with hazardous materials or exposed patients require respiratory protection for potentially exposed employees, training on respiratory protection, and the provision of personal protective equipment. However, not all ED personnel are required to be trained in decontamination procedures. While all ED staff should have a basic understanding of hazmat situations, specific training in decontamination procedures is only necessary for those who will be directly involved in the decontamination process. Therefore, the correct answer is that all ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures, as this is not a mandatory requirement under OSHA regulations for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or exposed patients.
Which of the following is an example of a breach of a client's right to privacy?
- A. A nurse who is not caring for the client reads the client's personal information in the chart
- B. A client is not allowed to keep a copy of their original medical record
- C. A nurse files an incident report about a client that is reviewed with all staff at a meeting
- D. A client's photograph is used without permission for the hospital newsletter
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A breach of a client's right to privacy can occur when their personal information is used or disclosed without their consent. In this scenario, using a client's photograph without permission for the hospital newsletter violates their privacy rights. It is important to respect a client's confidentiality and seek their consent before using their personal information. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to breaching a client's right to privacy. Reading a client's personal information in their chart, not allowing a client to keep a copy of their medical record, and filing an incident report about a client do not necessarily violate their privacy rights as long as the information is handled appropriately and within legal and ethical boundaries.
What preparation is necessary for a colposcopy procedure?
- A. NPO for 8-12 hours before the procedure.
- B. D/C all hypertension medications for two days prior to the procedure.
- C. Take three Dulcolax tablets and two containers of Miralax the day before to clear out the lower GI system.
- D. None of the above prep is necessary for this type of procedure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A colposcopy procedure is performed to examine the vagina and cervix. The only preparation required is washing the external genitals with soap and water on the morning of the procedure. Choices A, B, and C suggest unnecessary preparations that are not relevant to a colposcopy. NPO for 8-12 hours, discontinuing hypertension medications, and using laxatives are not part of the standard preparation for a colposcopy.