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Which of the following actions is recommended for controlling severe external bleeding from an extremity?
- A. Applying a tourniquet proximal to the injury site.
- B. Elevating the extremity above the level of the heart.
- C. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing.
- D. Removing any impaled objects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When controlling severe external bleeding from an extremity, the recommended action is to apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing. Direct pressure helps to stop the bleeding by promoting clot formation and reducing blood flow from the wound. This method is effective in most cases and should be the first response to control bleeding. Elevating the extremity above the level of the heart can be helpful in some cases, but direct pressure is the initial recommended action. Applying a tourniquet proximal to the injury site should only be done as a last resort when other methods are not successful, as it can lead to complications such as tissue damage. Removing any impaled objects can actually worsen the bleeding and should be avoided unless necessary for immediate life-saving measures.
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A patient expresses frustration with the treatment plan proposed by the healthcare team. What is the most appropriate response from the nurse?
- A. Dismiss the patient's concerns and assure them that the treatment plan is the best option.
- B. Empathize with the patient's frustration and explore their concerns further.
- C. Ignore the patient's frustration and proceed with implementing the treatment plan.
- D. Tell the patient that they have no choice but to follow the treatment plan.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate response from the nurse when a patient expresses frustration with the treatment plan proposed by the healthcare team is to empathize with the patient's frustration and explore their concerns further. It is important to actively listen to the patient, acknowledge their feelings, and address any questions or uncertainties they may have about the treatment plan. By engaging in open communication and demonstrating empathy, the nurse can foster a therapeutic relationship with the patient and work towards finding a solution that is mutually agreeable and beneficial for the patient's well-being. Dismissing the patient's concerns (Option A) or ignoring their frustration (Option C) can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust, which may ultimately impact the patient's compliance with the treatment plan. Similarly, telling the patient that they have no choice but to follow the treatment plan (Option D) can be perceived as dismissive and confrontational, which is not conducive to promoting patient-centered care.
The nurse is conducting an assessment to her patient who has edema of the lower extremities due to congestive heart failure. If edema is graded on a scale of +1 (no visible edema in the leg) to 4+ (leg very swollen), what will the Nurse document in her chart if her assessment findings of the edema is SLIGHTLY swollen?
- A. 4
- B. 2
- C. 1
- D. 3
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the grading system used for edema, +1 indicates no visible edema in the leg, +2 indicates slight edema with indentations that quickly resolve, +3 indicates moderate edema with deeper indentations that may take longer to resolve, and +4 indicates severe edema with very swollen legs. In this case, since the edema is described as slightly swollen, the appropriate grade to document would be +2.
A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe abdominal pain, distention, and absent bowel sounds. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
- A. Encouraging the client to ambulate to promote bowel function
- B. Providing a heating pad to alleviate abdominal discomfort
- C. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately
- D. Administering a laxative to promote bowel evacuation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The symptoms the postpartum client is experiencing - persistent, severe abdominal pain, distention, and absent bowel sounds - are concerning and could indicate a serious underlying issue such as bowel obstruction or other complications. Prompt communication with the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure the client receives the necessary assessment, intervention, and treatment. Encouraging ambulation, providing a heating pad, or administering a laxative are not appropriate actions in this case without first consulting with the healthcare provider due to the severity and potential complexity of the client's symptoms.
Which of the following screening tests is recommended for cervical cancer prevention in women aged 21 to 65 years?
- A. Human papillomavirus (HPV) testing alone
- B. Cytology (Pap smear) alone
- C. Co-testing with cytology and HPV testing
- D. Endometrial biopsy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The recommended screening test for cervical cancer prevention in women aged 21 to 65 years is cytology, also known as a Pap smear. The Pap smear is a test that looks for changes in the cells of the cervix that could indicate the presence of cervical cancer or pre-cancerous conditions. This test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 years, and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65 years, depending on the screening method used. HPV testing alone or co-testing with both cytology and HPV testing may be used in certain situations, but for most women in this age group, cytology (Pap smear) alone is the recommended screening test.
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of venous thrombosis, including deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE), despite no apparent provoking factors. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
- A. Antithrombin III deficiency
- B. Protein C deficiency
- C. Protein S deficiency
- D. Factor V Leiden mutation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Factor V Leiden mutation is the most common inherited predisposition to venous thrombosis. In this condition, there is a specific mutation in the factor V gene (also known as factor V Leiden) that makes factor V resistant to inactivation by activated protein C. This resistance leads to excessive clot formation, increasing the risk of recurrent venous thrombosis like DVT and PE. Patients with Factor V Leiden mutation may have a history of recurrent unprovoked venous thrombosis at a young age. In comparison, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C deficiency, and protein S deficiency are other inherited thrombophilias that may increase the risk of venous thrombosis, but Factor V Leiden mutation is the most likely cause in this case based on the presentation of recurrent episodes without apparent provoking factors.