Nokea
Which of the following actions of sucralfate should the nurse include in the teaching for a client who is to start a new prescription for sucralfate for peptic ulcer disease?
- A. Decreases stomach acid secretion
- B. Neutralizes acids in the stomach
- C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
- D. Treats ulcers by eradicating H. pylori
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Forms a protective barrier over ulcers. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers in the stomach and small intestine, providing a physical barrier to prevent further damage from stomach acid. This action helps promote healing of the ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sucralfate does not decrease stomach acid secretion, neutralize acids in the stomach, or treat ulcers by eradicating H. pylori bacteria. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the mechanism of action of sucralfate to ensure understanding and adherence to the treatment plan.
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A nurse is teaching a client about cyclobenzaprinWhich of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective?
- A. I will have increased saliva production.
- B. I will continue taking the medication until the rash disappears.
- C. I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it.
- D. I will report any urinary incontinence.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it." This indicates effective teaching because cyclobenzaprine should not be abruptly stopped to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Tapering off gradually helps the body adjust. Saliva production (A) is not a typical side effect. Continuing until rash disappears (B) is incorrect as it may not be related to the medication. Reporting urinary incontinence (D) is important but not related to proper medication use.
Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take after inadvertently administering 160 mg of valsartan PO to a client who was scheduled to receive 80 mg?
- A. Evaluate the client for orthostatic hypotension
- B. Monitor the client's urine output
- C. Obtain the client's laboratory results
- D. Check the client for nasal congestion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluate the client for orthostatic hypotension. After administering a double dose of Valsartan, the priority is to assess the client for potential adverse effects such as a sudden drop in blood pressure, which can lead to orthostatic hypotension. This is crucial to prevent any harm to the client. Monitoring urine output (B) may be important but is not the immediate priority. Obtaining laboratory results (C) would not provide immediate information on the client's current condition. Checking for nasal congestion (D) is irrelevant to the situation.
Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who has taken a large amount of diazepam?
- A. Ondansetron
- B. Magnesium Sulphate
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Protamine Sulphate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flumazenil. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam. It competes with benzodiazepines at the receptor site, reversing their sedative and hypnotic effects. Ondansetron (A) is an antiemetic, Magnesium Sulphate (B) is used for various conditions like pre-eclampsia, Protamine Sulphate (D) is used to reverse heparin anticoagulation. Flumazenil is the most appropriate choice for reversing the effects of diazepam overdose.
For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client taking acetazolamide for chronic open-angle glaucoma to monitor and report?
- A. Tingling of fingers
- B. Constipation
- C. Weight gain
- D. Oliguria
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling of fingers. Acetazolamide is a diuretic commonly used to treat glaucoma. Tingling of fingers is associated with electrolyte imbalances caused by the drug's diuretic effect. This symptom may indicate hypokalemia, a potential side effect of acetazolamide. Monitoring and reporting this symptom promptly can prevent serious complications.
Other choices are incorrect because:
B: Constipation is not a common side effect of acetazolamide.
C: Weight gain is unlikely as acetazolamide is a diuretic causing fluid loss.
D: Oliguria, decreased urine output, is not a usual side effect of acetazolamide.
Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to a client with myasthenia gravis who is in a cholinergic crisis?
- A. Potassium Iodide
- B. Glucagon
- C. Atropine
- D. Protamine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
C: Atropine is the correct answer because it is an anticholinergic medication that can counteract the excess acetylcholine causing cholinergic crisis in myasthenia gravis.
Incorrect choices:
A: Potassium Iodide is used for thyroid conditions, not for myasthenia gravis crises.
B: Glucagon is used for hypoglycemia, not for myasthenia gravis crises.
D: Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not for myasthenia gravis crises.