Nokea
A nurse is conducting an initial assessment of a client and notices a discrepancy Between the clients current IV infusion and the information received during the shift's report.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Compare the current infusion with the prescription and the client's medical record.
- B. Adjust the IV infusion rate to match the information received during the shift report.
- C. Stop the infusion immediately and notify the provider.
- D. Document the discrepancy in the client's record and continue monitoring the infusion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should compare the current infusion with the prescription and the client's medical record to ensure accuracy and safety. This step is crucial in preventing medication errors and ensuring that the right medication is given to the right patient at the right time. Adjusting the IV infusion rate without verifying the information can lead to potential harm (choice B). Stopping the infusion immediately and notifying the provider is not necessary unless there is a clear indication of a serious issue (choice C). Documenting the discrepancy and continuing monitoring without taking immediate action can compromise patient safety (choice D).
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A nurse is consulting A pharmacological reference about medication compatibility prior to administering warfarin to a client.
Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as being incompatible with warfarin?
- A. Naproxen
- B. Metformin
- C. Lisinopril
- D. Albuterol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naproxen. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, an anticoagulant. This is due to their combined effects on blood clotting. Metformin, Lisinopril, and Albuterol do not have a significant interaction with warfarin in terms of bleeding risk. Therefore, the nurse should identify Naproxen as incompatible with warfarin to prevent potential adverse effects.
The nurse is continuing to care for the client.
History and Physical
Day 1, 0900:
A 52-year-old client brought to emergency department by adult child. Client is alert and oriented
to person and time but does not know where they are. No history of substance use according to
client's adult child. Client exhibits constant movements and poor concentration. Hair and
clothing are unclean. Appears to be listening to unseen others. Skin turgor poor.
The nurse is providing teaching about lithium to the client and client's adult child. Select the 3 statements the nurse should include.
- A. Blurred vision is an expected adverse effect pf this medication
- B. It will take at least a week before this medication reaches a therapeutic level.
- C. This medication can cause nausea and drowsiness.
- D. You will be placed on a low sodium diet while taking this medication.
- E. This medication can cause weight gain.
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: Blurred vision is not typical; lithium takes time to reach therapeutic levels, causes nausea/drowsiness, and often leads to weight gain. A low-sodium diet is contraindicated due to risk of toxicity.
The nurse is discussing discharge plans with an older adult client who lives alone and has left sided weakness following a stroke
Which of the following information is the priority for the nurse to discuss?
- A. Reviewing information about support groups for individual who have had a stroke
- B. obtaining an alert system to get help in case of a fall
- C. providing information about available transportation resources
- D. choosing an agency to provide home physical therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: obtaining an alert system to get help in case of a fall. This is the priority for the nurse to discuss because falls can lead to serious injuries, so having a system in place to quickly get help is crucial for the patient's safety. Reviewing support groups (A) is important but not as urgent as fall prevention. Transportation resources (C) and home physical therapy agency (D) are important but secondary to immediate safety concerns.
A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant. Nurses'
Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by
acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Vital Signs Day
1, 0900:
Temperature (oral) 36.9°C (98,4° F) Heart
rate 72/min
Respiratory rate 16/min BP
162/112 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
Diagnostic Results Day 1,
1000:
Appearance cloudy (clear) Color
yellow (yellow)
pH 5.9 (4.6 to 8)
Protein 3+ (negative)
Specific gravity 1.013 (1.005 to 1.03) Leukocyte esterase
negative (negative)
Nitrites negative (negative) Ketones
negative (negative) Crystals negative
(negative) Casts negative (negative)
Glucose trace (negative) WBC 5 (0
t0 4)
WBC casts none (none)
RBC 1 (less than or equal to 2) RBC
casts none (none)
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record. Select 4 findings that indicate a potential prenatal complication.
- A. Urine protein
- B. Fetal activity
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Urine ketones
- E. Respiratory rate
- F. Report of headache
- G. Gravida/parity
Correct Answer: A,C,F,G
Rationale: The correct answers (A, C, F, G) indicate potential prenatal complications. Urine protein (A) suggests preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure (C) and proteinuria. Headaches (F) can also be a sign of preeclampsia. Gravida/parity (G) provides important obstetric history, identifying high-risk pregnancies. Fetal activity (B) and respiratory rate (E) are not specific to prenatal complications. Urine ketones (D) may indicate dehydration but not necessarily a prenatal complication.
A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a traumatic brain injury 72 hours ago.
Which finding should the nurse identify as a potential indication of increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Increasingly severe headache
- B. Bradycardia and hypertension
- C. Dilated, non-reactive pupils
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Increasingly severe headache is a common symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to brain tissue compression. Bradycardia and hypertension can occur as a result of increased intracranial pressure affecting the autonomic nervous system. Dilated, non-reactive pupils may indicate brainstem compression. Therefore, all of these findings are potential indications of increased intracranial pressure. Choices A, B, and C all individually point towards different manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, making them incorrect if considered in isolation.