Nokea
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Review the client's allergy history.
- B. Monitor the client's temperature.
- C. Check the client's latest white blood cell(WBC) count.
- D. Explain the purpose of the medication to the client.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review the client's allergy history. This should be done first to prevent potential harm to the client from allergic reactions. Knowing the client's allergy history helps the nurse identify any potential risks associated with administering medications. Monitoring temperature (B) and checking WBC count (C) are important but come after ensuring the safety of medication administration. Explaining the purpose of medication (D) is important but should be done after ensuring the client's safety.
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Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Xerostomia
- B. Client reports a pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
- C. Excoriation of the skin on the neck and chest
- D. Dysphagia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dysphagia. Dysphagia poses the highest risk of aspiration, malnutrition, and dehydration. Priority is given to life-threatening or potentially life-threatening issues. Xerostomia (A) is uncomfortable but not immediately life-threatening. Pain level (B) can be managed with medication. Excoriation of the skin (C) can be treated topically.
A charge nurse is monitoring a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the procedure?
- A. I will hang a new bag of TPN and IV tubing every 24 hours.
- B. I will obtain the client's weight every other day.
- C. I will monitor the client's blood glucose level every eight hours.
- D. I will increase the rate of the TPN infusion to ensure the correct amount is given
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hanging a new bag of TPN and IV tubing every 24 hours helps to prevent bacterial growth and contamination, ensuring the client's safety. TPN solutions are prone to bacterial contamination if left hanging for too long, so changing the bag and tubing every 24 hours is crucial.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B: Obtaining the client's weight every other day is important for monitoring the effectiveness of TPN therapy, but it does not specifically address the procedure for administering TPN.
C: Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every eight hours is essential for managing TPN therapy, but it does not directly relate to the procedure of administering TPN.
D: Increasing the rate of TPN infusion without proper authorization or assessment can lead to serious complications such as hyperglycemia or fluid overload, making this choice incorrect.
The nurse should recognize that which of the following findings is a complication of immobility
- A. Increased BP
- B. Urinary frequency
- C. Swollen area on calf
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Swollen area on calf. Immobility can lead to blood pooling in the lower extremities, causing swelling, pain, and potentially leading to deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This is a serious complication that can result from prolonged periods of immobility. Increased blood pressure (choice A) is not typically a direct complication of immobility. Urinary frequency (choice B) is more commonly associated with conditions like urinary tract infections or overactive bladder, not immobility. Swollen area on the calf (choice C) is a hallmark sign of potential DVT in immobile patients.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and note the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
- A. Maternal fever
- B. Fetal anemia
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia
- D. Chorioamnionitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal anemia. Fetal bradycardia (baseline <110/min) can be caused by inadequate oxygen delivery to the fetus, such as in fetal anemia. Anemia decreases the blood's ability to carry oxygen, leading to fetal distress. Maternal fever (A) can increase the fetal heart rate, not decrease it. Maternal hypoglycemia (C) can cause fetal distress, but typically presents with fetal tachycardia. Chorioamnionitis (D) can cause maternal fever and tachycardia, but is less likely to directly affect the fetal heart rate. Other choices are not provided.
Which of the following manifestations indicates that the client might be experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Confusion
- B. Increased thirst
- C. Frequent urination
- D. Flushed skin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Confusion. Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion due to the brain not receiving enough glucose for energy. Increased thirst and frequent urination are more indicative of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels). Flushed skin is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia.