Nokea
Which of the following arterial blood gas values indicates a patient may be experiencing a condition of metabolic acidosis?
- A. PaO2 90 mm Hg
- B. Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L
- C. CO2 47 mm Hg
- D. pH 7.34
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L. In metabolic acidosis, the bicarbonate levels are lower than normal. A bicarbonate value of 15 mEq/L indicates a deficit in the buffer system, contributing to the acidosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A, PaO2 90 mm Hg, reflects oxygen partial pressure and is not directly related to metabolic acidosis. Choice C, CO2 47 mm Hg, represents carbon dioxide levels and is more indicative of respiratory status. Choice D, pH 7.34, falls within the normal range (7.35-7.45) and does not confirm metabolic acidosis.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 15-year-old high school wrestler has been taking diuretics to lose weight to compete in a lower weight class. Which of the following medical tests is most likely to be given?
- A. Lab values of Potassium and Sodium
- B. Lab values of Glucose and Hemoglobin
- C. ECG
- D. CT scan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diuretics can disrupt the sodium and potassium balance, potentially leading to cardiac complications. Monitoring the lab values of potassium and sodium is crucial to assess electrolyte imbalances due to diuretic use. Testing glucose and hemoglobin levels is not directly related to diuretic use in this context. An ECG would be indicated if there were signs or symptoms of cardiac abnormalities, but it is not the primary test to monitor the effects of diuretics. A CT scan is not typically used to assess electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics.
A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
- B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
- C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
- D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.
Which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic AIDS in the medical chart? (T4 cell count per deciliter)
- A. Greater than 1000 cells per deciliter
- B. Less than 500 cells per deciliter
- C. Greater than 2000 cells per deciliter
- D. Less than 200 cells per deciliter
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A T4 cell count of less than 200 cells per deciliter indicates symptomatic AIDS. This severe depletion of T4 cells signifies advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because T4 cell counts above 2000, above 1000, or below 500 cells per deciliter, respectively, are not indicative of symptomatic AIDS.
A 46-year-old has returned from a heart catheterization and wants to get up to start walking 3 hours after the procedure. The nurse should:
- A. Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour and check the chart for activity orders.
- B. Allow the patient to begin limited ambulation with assistance.
- C. Recommend a physical therapy consultation for ambulation.
- D. Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for another 6 hours and check the chart for activity orders.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour after a heart catheterization before starting ambulation. This period allows for proper healing and reduces the risk of complications such as bleeding or hematoma formation at the catheter insertion site. Starting ambulation too soon can disrupt the healing process and lead to adverse events. Choice B is incorrect because limited ambulation should not be initiated shortly after the procedure as it may increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as physical therapy consultation is not typically necessary for initial ambulation post-heart catheterization; this can be managed by nursing staff. Choice D is incorrect as keeping the leg straight for 6 hours is excessive and unnecessary, potentially leading to complications such as deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged immobility.
An infection in a central venous access device is not eliminated by giving antibiotics through the catheter. How might bacterial glycocalyx contribute to this?
- A. It protects the bacteria from antibiotic and immunologic destruction.
- B. Glycocalyx neutralizes the antibiotic, rendering it ineffective.
- C. It competes with the antibiotic for binding sites on the microbe.
- D. Glycocalyx provides nutrients for microbial growth.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bacterial glycocalyx is a viscous polysaccharide or polypeptide slime that covers microbes. It plays a significant role in protecting bacteria by enhancing adherence to surfaces, resisting phagocytic engulfment by white blood cells, and preventing antibiotics from contacting the microbe. Choice A is correct because glycocalyx shields the bacteria from both antibiotics and the immune system, allowing the infection to persist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because glycocalyx does not neutralize antibiotics, compete for binding sites with antibiotics, or provide nutrients for microbial growth.