Which of the following assessments is the most important for a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Heart rate
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient receiving IV potassium is monitoring blood pressure. IV potassium can cause significant changes in cardiac function, leading to adverse effects such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. While respiratory rate, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to monitor in clinical practice, blood pressure takes precedence in patients receiving IV potassium due to its direct impact on cardiovascular function. Changes in blood pressure can be an early indicator of potassium-induced cardiac complications, making it crucial to monitor closely during administration.
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The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Fatigue.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.
The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1000 ml of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. What condition is the client at risk for developing?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions, which contain stomach acid, can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Excessive loss of acid results in an increase in the blood pH, leading to alkalosis. Hyperkalemia (B) is an elevated potassium level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Metabolic acidosis (C) is an acid-base imbalance characterized by low pH and bicarbonate levels, which is the opposite of what would occur with the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (D) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with the scenario described in the question.
After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client for:
- A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
- B. Fluctuating blood glucose levels.
- C. Cushing's syndrome.
- D. Cardiac arrhythmias.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, assessing the client for a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is crucial due to the risk of this serious complication. A CSF leak can lead to infection and increased intracranial pressure, which must be promptly identified and managed to prevent further complications. Fluctuating blood glucose levels (Choice B) are not directly associated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) is a condition related to prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol and is not a common immediate concern post-transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cardiac arrhythmias (Choice D) are not typically a direct complication of this surgical procedure, making it a less relevant concern compared to a CSF leak.
A client is hospitalized with heart failure (HF). Which intervention should the nurse implement to improve ventilation and reduce venous return?
- A. Perform passive range of motion exercises
- B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Increase the client's activity level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In clients with heart failure, placing them in high Fowler's position is beneficial as it helps reduce venous return and improve ventilation. This position aids in decreasing the workload on the heart by promoting better lung expansion and oxygenation. Passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are not directly related to improving ventilation or reducing venous return. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice C) may help with oxygenation but does not directly address reducing venous return. Increasing the client's activity level (Choice D) may worsen heart failure symptoms by increasing the workload on the heart.
Assessment of the diabetic client for common complications should include examination of the:
- A. Abdomen.
- B. Lymph glands.
- C. Pharynx.
- D. Eyes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Eyes. Diabetic clients are at high risk of developing complications such as diabetic retinopathy, making regular eye examinations crucial. Assessing the eyes helps in early detection and management of diabetic eye diseases. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they may be relevant in certain assessments, they are not commonly associated with complications specific to diabetes. Examination of the abdomen, lymph glands, and pharynx are not typically part of routine assessments for common complications in diabetic clients.