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Which of the following bacteria is most commonly associated with nosocomial infections?
- A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
- B. Shigella sonnei
- C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly found in hospital environments.
2. It is an opportunistic pathogen causing various nosocomial infections.
3. Its ability to develop resistance to antibiotics makes it a significant threat.
4. Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria, not common nosocomial infections.
5. Shigella sonnei causes foodborne illness, not typically nosocomial infections.
6. "None of the above" is incorrect as Pseudomonas is indeed commonly associated with nosocomial infections.
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While registering the child to the school Mantoux's test was made to define whether revaccination was needed test result is negative. What does this result of the test mean?
- A. Absence of antitoxic immunity to the tuberculosis
- B. Presence of antibodies for tubercle bacillus
- C. Absence of antibodies for tubercle bacillus
- D. Presence of cell immunity to the tuberculosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Mantoux test measures cell-mediated immunity response to tuberculosis.
Step 2: A negative result means no significant immune response to TB antigens.
Step 3: Option A is incorrect, as it refers to antitoxic immunity, not cell immunity.
Step 4: Option B is incorrect, as it mentions antibodies, not cell-mediated immunity.
Step 5: Option C is incorrect, as it states absence of antibodies, not cell immunity.
Step 6: Option D is correct as it directly correlates with the purpose of Mantoux test.
A 45-year-old patient complains of body temperature rise up to 40oC, general weakness, headache, painfulness and spastic muscle contractions around the wound in the shin. He received this wound 5 days ago when working in his garden. He requested no medical care back then. What wound infection can be suspected?
- A. Tetanus
- B. Anthrax
- C. Erysipelas
- D. Gram-positive
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. The patient's symptoms of muscle contractions, fever, and wound history suggest tetanus, caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria commonly found in soil. The spastic muscle contractions around the wound are classic for tetanus due to the neurotoxin produced by the bacteria. General weakness and headache are also common symptoms.
B: Anthrax is unlikely as it presents with different symptoms such as skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, and gastrointestinal symptoms.
C: Erysipelas is characterized by red, swollen patches on the skin, not consistent with the symptoms described.
D: Gram-positive is not a specific diagnosis but a broad category of bacteria. Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani, which is a Gram-positive bacterium, but this choice does not provide a specific infection diagnosis.
A patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. Examination of a vaginal smear revealed big monocellular, pear-shaped organisms with the pointed spike at the posterior end of body, big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were found in the smear?
- A. Trichomonas vaginalis
- B. Trichomonas hominis
- C. Trichomonas buccalis
- D. Trypanosoma gambiense
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis.
1. Symptoms of urogenital inflammation match Trichomonas vaginalis infection.
2. Description matches Trichomonas vaginalis characteristics: pear-shaped, pointed spike, big nucleus, undulating membrane.
3. Trichomonas hominis and buccalis do not typically infect urogenital tracts.
4. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African trypanosomiasis, not urogenital infections.
Which of the following bacteria produces a neurotoxin that causes botulism?
- A. Clostridium botulinum
- B. Clostridium tetani
- C. Escherichia coli
- D. Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. Clostridium botulinum produces the neurotoxin that causes botulism. This bacterium thrives in anaerobic conditions and contaminated food. The neurotoxin blocks acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Escherichia coli can cause food poisoning but not botulism, and Staphylococcus aureus produces enterotoxins causing food poisoning, not botulism.
A child presented with foul-smelling diarrhea. Stool microscopy revealed trophozoites with two nuclei and flagella. What is the causative agent?
- A. Giardia lamblia
- B. Entamoeba histolytica
- C. Trichomonas vaginalis
- D. Balantidium coli
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that causes foul-smelling diarrhea. The trophozoites of Giardia lamblia have two nuclei and flagella, which are characteristic features seen on stool microscopy. The presence of these specific features helps differentiate Giardia lamblia from the other options. Entamoeba histolytica (B) typically presents with one nucleus and lacks flagella. Trichomonas vaginalis (C) is a sexually transmitted parasite with a different morphology. Balantidium coli (D) is a ciliated parasite, not flagellated like Giardia lamblia.