Nokea
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of birth control pills?
- A. They block sperm from reaching the egg.
- B. They prevent ovulation by suppressing hormone levels.
- C. They increase cervical mucus production to block sperm entry.
- D. They reduce the size of the ovaries and fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Birth control pills primarily work by preventing ovulation, thereby inhibiting the release of eggs for fertilization. Choice A is incorrect because birth control pills do not directly block sperm; they prevent ovulation. Choice C is partially correct but is not the main mechanism, as the primary function is to prevent ovulation. Choice D is incorrect because birth control pills do not alter the size of reproductive organs.
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A young girl comes to the OB-GYN office to begin contraception. What is the most important information the nurse should find in the history before starting a contraceptive?
- A. Do your cramps prevent you from daily activities?
- B. When was your last menstrual period?
- C. How much water do you drink?
- D. How many pads do you soak per day during your cycle?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cramps that interfere with daily activities could indicate underlying issues that need to be addressed before starting contraception. This is a priority because it could suggest a need for further evaluation or treatment before prescribing a contraceptive method. Choice B is important but less critical than assessing the impact of menstrual symptoms on daily life. Choice C, while important for overall health, does not have a direct impact on contraception planning. Choice D is less useful in this context compared to understanding how menstrual symptoms affect daily functioning.
A patient who has an LNG-IUC in place calls the office and states she just took a pregnancy test, and it is positive. She comes in for a visit, and the nurse does another pregnancy test, which is positive. What does the nurse know that the clinician will inform the patient regarding the IUC?
- A. Removing the IUC may increase the chance of infertility.
- B. The fetus is at risk for congenital defects.
- C. The IUC needs to be removed regardless of the plans for this pregnancy.
- D. There is no risk to the fetus if the IUC is left in place.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse knows that the clinician will inform the patient regarding the LNG-IUC is that there is no risk to the fetus if the IUC is left in place. The LNG-IUC (levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system) is a highly effective form of contraception that works by releasing progesterone locally in the uterus. The hormonal effect of the LNG-IUC is mostly limited to the uterus and very little of it circulates systemically. Therefore, there is no known increased risk of congenital defects or harm to the fetus if the IUC is left in place during pregnancy. The IUC can be left in place if the patient chooses to continue the pregnancy, provided there are no signs of infection or other complications that would necessitate its removal.
A patient calls and says she used her diaphragm on Saturday night at 8:00 p.m., again on Sunday morning at 2:00 a.m., and again at 8:00 a.m. She is wondering when she can safely remove it while still having effective contraception. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. 10:00 a.m. Sunday
- B. 2:00 p.m. Sunday
- C. 10:00 p.m. Sunday
- D. 8:00 a.m. Monday
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In general, a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse but no more than 24 hours. Based on the patient's usage times on Saturday night at 8:00 p.m., Sunday morning at 2:00 a.m., and Sunday morning at 8:00 a.m., she can safely remove the diaphragm on Monday morning at 8:00 a.m. This ensures she has used it for the necessary timeframe for effective contraception.
The nurse provides counseling on coitus interruptus. What important counseling should be included?
- A. The partners must communicate well to use this method.
- B. This method is 100 percent effective because semen does not enter the vagina.
- C. BBT must be used with this method.
- D. All persons are able to control ejaculate in time to withdraw.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The important counseling that should be included when discussing coitus interruptus (withdrawal method) is that the partners must communicate well to use this method effectively. Coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis from the vagina before ejaculation to prevent sperm from entering the woman's reproductive tract. Effective communication between partners is crucial to ensure that the method is used correctly and consistently. This method does not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so it's also important to discuss alternative methods of contraception for STI prevention. The statement that this method is 100 percent effective is incorrect, as pre-ejaculate can contain sperm and there is a risk of pregnancy if withdrawal is not done correctly.
Why would FAM not be appropriate for the nurse to recommend to a perimenopausal person?
- A. At that age, people do not have intercourse on a regular basis.
- B. They are married and do not need contraception.
- C. They have irregular menstrual periods.
- D. Pregnancy is not a concern when a person is perimenopausal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fertility Awareness Methods (FAM) rely on tracking menstrual cycles and using that information to predict fertile and infertile days. In perimenopausal individuals, menstrual periods can become irregular due to hormonal fluctuations associated with menopause. As a result, it can be challenging to accurately determine fertile and infertile days, making FAM less effective for contraception in this population. Therefore, recommending FAM to a perimenopausal person with irregular menstrual periods would not be appropriate.