Nokea
Which of the following characteristics is common in both malignant and benign tumors?
- A. Uncontrolled cell growth
- B. Rapid growth
- C. Metastasis
- D. Invasion of surrounding tissue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uncontrolled cell growth. This characteristic is common to both malignant and benign tumors. Benign tumors are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissue or spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rapid growth, metastasis, and invasion of surrounding tissue are characteristics typically associated with malignant tumors.
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How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?
- A. Orally, with food
- B. Orally, on an empty stomach
- C. Intramuscularly
- D. Intravenously, as a bolus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.
A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?
- A. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
- B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) and doxapram (Dopram)
- D. Propranolol (Inderal) and sotalol (Betapace)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.
A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?
- A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
- C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
- D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.
When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse emphasize about the potential interactions with other medications?
- A. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics.
- B. Oral contraceptives are less effective when taken with food.
- C. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
- D. Oral contraceptives have no interactions with other medications.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics, so patients should be informed about the potential need for additional contraception. Choice B is incorrect because taking oral contraceptives with food does not affect their effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect because oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives can interact with other medications, especially certain antibiotics, affecting their efficacy.
Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?
- A. Excessive applications will lead to central nervous system toxicity.
- B. Excessive applications will cause irritation, rash, and inflammation.
- C. Excessive applications will cause headaches, dizziness, and diarrhea.
- D. Excessive applications will lead to anorexia and cachexia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.