Nokea
Which of the following conditions increases a client's risk of aspiration of stomach contents?
- A. A client is in restraints
- B. A client has a scaphoid abdomen
- C. A client is lying prone
- D. More than one answer is correct
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints is at an increased risk of aspiration of stomach contents. When a client is restrained, they may be unable to effectively move or turn their body if they begin to vomit, which can lead to aspiration. This lack of mobility can hinder their ability to protect their airway. On the other hand, a scaphoid abdomen, which is sunken or hollowed, is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Additionally, lying prone, facing downward, does not necessarily increase the risk of aspiration, as aspiration is more likely when lying supine (facing upward). Therefore, the correct answer is that a client is in restraints.
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A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?
- A. Elevated fibrinogen level
- B. Prolonged PT
- C. Elevated platelet count
- D. Depressed d-dimer level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.
A client is receiving education on cholesterol. Which of the following statements from the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I would like my HDL levels to be over 50.
- B. It is better for me to have high HDL levels and low LDL levels.
- C. It is better for me to have high LDL levels and low HDL levels.
- D. My goal is to get my total cholesterol below 200.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'It is better for me to have high LDL levels and low HDL levels.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because high LDL levels contribute to atherosclerosis, while high HDL levels can protect against heart disease. The client should understand the importance of lowering LDL levels and increasing HDL levels to maintain good heart health. Choice A is correct as desiring HDL levels over 50 is a positive goal. Choice B is correct as it reflects the ideal scenario of high HDL and low LDL levels. Choice D is correct as a total cholesterol below 200 is a common goal for heart health. Therefore, Choice C is incorrect as it suggests an opposite and unhealthy relationship between LDL and HDL levels.
Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- C. Biot's respirations
- D. Cluster breathing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.
While caring for a client who has just come from surgery and is in the recovery room with an endotracheal tube in place, the nurse deflates the cuff on the tube and removes it. The client sits up in bed, grasps his throat, and begins to make wheezing sounds. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this situation?
- A. The client is choking on part of the tube
- B. The client has anxiety
- C. The client is having a laryngospasm
- D. The client is having a normal response from anesthesia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After surgery, some clients may experience a laryngospasm during emergence from anesthesia. A laryngospasm can lead to the closure of the laryngeal opening due to spasm of the vocal cords. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of wheezing and throat grasping are indicative of a laryngospasm rather than choking on the tube, anxiety, or a normal response from anesthesia. The nurse should act promptly to open the airway to aid breathing and consider administering muscle relaxants as necessary.
Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8°F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?
- A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
- B. Contact the physician for an order for antibiotics
- C. Administer oxygen therapy
- D. Decrease his IV rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, mild fever, and rales or crackles on auscultation in a client who had surgery 2 days ago may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer oxygen to address his breathing and assist him to a comfortable position to facilitate better oxygenation before contacting the physician. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended in this situation as it may worsen a potential pulmonary embolism by increasing venous return. Contacting the physician for antibiotics is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the breathing difficulty. Decreasing the IV rate is not indicated in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory distress and needs oxygen therapy.