Nokea
Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland, typically presenting with dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, and perineal or pelvic pain?
- A. Prostate cancer
- B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
- C. Prostatitis
- D. Urethritis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prostatitis is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland, leading to symptoms such as dysuria (painful urination), urinary frequency, urinary urgency, and perineal or pelvic pain. Prostate cancer, on the other hand, is characterized by the presence of malignant cells in the prostate gland and may not present with these typical symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that can cause urinary symptoms but is not typically associated with inflammation. Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra, which is a different condition and may present with symptoms such as painful urination and discharge from the urethra.
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When a patient develops a temperature of 39.8 degree centigrade after an abdominal surgery with an ongoing blood transfusion, the PACU nurse should notify the surgeon as this may indicate ______.
- A. abdominal tissue injury
- B. on going potential infection
- C. post-anesthesia drug reaction
- D. allergic reaction from blood transfusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A temperature of 39.8 degrees Celsius (103.6 degrees Fahrenheit) in a patient following abdominal surgery and ongoing blood transfusion may indicate an ongoing potential infection. During surgery, the body is exposed to various microorganisms, and the stress of surgery can weaken the immune system, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Blood transfusions also carry a risk of introducing infections if not properly screened. Therefore, in this situation, an elevated temperature may be a sign that an infection is developing, and prompt notification of the surgeon is important for further evaluation and management.
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Anterior uveitis
- B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
- C. Endophthalmitis
- D. Corneal abrasion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described is consistent with anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis involves inflammation of the iris and ciliary body. Patients typically present with symptoms such as redness, pain, photophobia, and blurred vision. The slit-lamp examination findings of ciliary injection (redness and dilation of blood vessels in the iris and ciliary body), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light (due to ciliary muscle spasm causing decreased accommodation) are characteristic of anterior uveitis. This condition is often idiopathic but can be associated with various systemic diseases like ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, and other autoimmune disorders. Treatment involves addressing the inflammation with topical corticosteroids and, in some cases, cycloplegic agents to reduce pain and inflammation.
If case a patient falls, the nurse FIRST responsibility is to________.
- A. assess the patient's injury
- B. report the incident to the head nurse
- C. write an incident repot
- D. notify the physician at once
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The first responsibility of a nurse when a patient falls is to assess the patient's injury. Assessing the patient's injury immediately allows the nurse to determine the severity of the fall and provide appropriate care and interventions. It is important to assess for any signs of injury, such as pain, swelling, bruising, or altered mobility, and to address any immediate medical needs. Once the patient's injury has been assessed, the nurse can then proceed to report the incident to the head nurse, write an incident report, and notify the physician if necessary.
A pregnant woman presents with a history of recurrent pregnancy losses in the second trimester. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and uterine contractions are absent. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Threatened abortion
- C. Placenta previa
- D. Incompetent cervix
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Incompetent cervix refers to a weakened cervix that is unable to support the weight of the growing fetus, leading to painless cervical dilation and second-trimester pregnancy loss. In this condition, the cervix may dilate prematurely without contractions, resulting in a painless cervical dilation. The history of recurrent second-trimester losses, along with cervical dilation and absence of uterine contractions in the presenting pregnant woman, are characteristic of incompetent cervix. Prompt recognition and management with cerclage placement can help prevent further pregnancy losses in women with incompetent cervix.
A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe headache, photophobia, and altered mental status. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
- A. Encouraging the client to rest in a dark, quiet room
- B. Providing acetaminophen for headache relief
- C. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately
- D. Offering a massage to relieve muscle tension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action when a postpartum client presents with persistent, severe headache, photophobia, and altered mental status is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. These symptoms could be indicative of serious conditions such as postpartum preeclampsia or postpartum eclampsia, both of which require prompt medical evaluation and intervention. Delaying medical attention in such cases can lead to severe complications for the mother. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the client's safety and well-being by quickly involving the healthcare provider for further assessment and management.