Which of the following conditions is the client most likely developing?
- A. Pelvic inflammatory.
- B. Ectopic pregnancy.
- C. Pyclonephritis.
- D. C-reactive protein.
- E. Beta hCG.
- F. Urinalysis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: [1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0]
The correct answer is A: Pelvic inflammatory. Pelvic inflammatory disease is an infection of the female reproductive organs, often caused by sexually transmitted infections. It presents with symptoms like pelvic pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, and fever. Ectopic pregnancy (B) is the implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus and presents with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Pyelonephritis (C) is a kidney infection, typically causing fever and flank pain. C-reactive protein (D) is a marker for inflammation and infection, not a specific condition. Beta hCG (E) is a hormone produced in pregnancy. Urinalysis (F) is a test to analyze urine composition, not a condition.
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complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The client is at highest risk for developing ---evidenced by the client's ---
- A. Endometritis.
- B. Mastitis.
- C. Postpartum hemorrhage.
- D. Group B streptococcus positive status.
- E. Spontaneous vaginal delivery.
- F. Median episiotomy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Endometritis is an infection of the uterine lining, commonly occurring post-delivery.
2. The client's risk for endometritis increases due to factors like prolonged labor, multiple vaginal exams, and retained placental fragments.
3. The client's condition or symptoms may include fever, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling lochia.
4. The other options (B-F) are not directly related to the highest risk for developing endometritis post-delivery.
The nurse suspects the adolescent is experiencing pelvic inflammatory disease and is planning care. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe? Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The nurse should anticipate a provider's prescription for---------------------- and ------------------
- A. doxycydline
- B. acyclovir
- C. imiquimod
- D. fluconazole
- E. ceftriaxone
- F. Providing education on medications
Correct Answer: A,E,F
Rationale: The correct answer is A, E, and F. Pelvic inflammatory disease is commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections, such as Chlamydia and Gonorrhea. The recommended treatment involves antibiotics like doxycycline (A) and ceftriaxone (E) to target these infections. Providing education on medications (F) is essential to ensure compliance and understanding of the treatment regimen. Acyclovir (B) is used to treat herpes infections, not PID. Imiquimod (C) is used for certain skin conditions, not PID. Fluconazole (D) is an antifungal medication, not typically used for PID treatment.
For each assessment finding, click to specify if the finding is consistent with hypoglycemia, hyperbilirubinemia, or sepsis.
- A. Ecchymotic caput Succedaneum.
- B. Decreased temperature.
- C. Lethargy.
- D. Poor feeding.
- E. Respiratory distress.
- F. Yellow sclera and oral mucosa.
Correct Answer: B, C, D, E, F
Rationale: The correct answer is because decreased temperature (B), lethargy (C), poor feeding (D), respiratory distress (E), and yellow sclera and oral mucosa (F) are consistent with hypoglycemia, hyperbilirubinemia, and sepsis. Decreased temperature can indicate hypoglycemia, lethargy and poor feeding can be seen in hypoglycemia and sepsis, respiratory distress can be a sign of sepsis, and yellow sclera and oral mucosa can be indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. Ecchymotic caput succedaneum is more related to birth trauma and is not specific to these conditions.
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation about manifestations of potential pregnancy complications to report to the provider. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include?
- A. Shortness of breath when climbing stairs.
- B. Swelling of feet and ankles at the end of the day.
- C. Headache that is unrelieved by analgesia.
- D. Braxton Hicks contractions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache that is unrelieved by analgesia. This symptom could indicate a potentially serious condition such as preeclampsia, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications for the mother and baby. Shortness of breath when climbing stairs (A) is common in late pregnancy due to the growing uterus pressing on the diaphragm. Swelling of feet and ankles (B) is expected in pregnancy due to increased fluid retention. Braxton Hicks contractions (D) are normal and not a cause for concern unless they become regular and closer together.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. They are experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that their cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor?
- A. Passive descent.
- B. Active.
- C. Early.
- D. Descent.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Descent. At 9 cm dilation, the client is in the second stage of labor, which consists of the descent and birth of the baby. Increasing rectal pressure indicates fetal descent and impending birth. Contractions 2-3 min apart lasting 80-90 seconds are characteristic of the active phase of the second stage of labor. The passive descent phase occurs earlier when the cervix is not fully dilated. The early phase is part of the first stage of labor. Active labor typically begins when the cervix is around 6 cm dilated. Therefore, D is the correct choice as it aligns with the client's symptoms and stage of labor progression.