Which of the following conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level?
- A. Rhabdomyolysis
- B. Digitalis toxicity
- C. Glomerulonephritis
- D. All answers are correct
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A serum creatinine level may be warranted in conditions that can affect renal function or cause muscle breakdown. Rhabdomyolysis, characterized by muscle injury and breakdown, can lead to elevated creatinine levels due to the release of creatinine from muscles. Digitalis toxicity can impair renal function, leading to a need for monitoring creatinine levels. Glomerulonephritis, an inflammatory condition affecting the kidney's filtering units, can also impact renal function and require assessment of creatinine levels. Therefore, all the provided conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level to assess renal function and muscle breakdown.
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A client is being monitored for decreased tissue perfusion and increased risk of skin breakdown. Which measure best improves tissue perfusion in this client?
- A. Massaging the reddened areas
- B. Performing range of motion exercises
- C. Administering antithrombotics as ordered
- D. Feeding the client a high-carbohydrate diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a client at risk of impaired skin integrity due to decreased tissue perfusion, improving mobility is crucial to enhance tissue perfusion and prevent skin breakdown. Range of motion exercises are beneficial to increase circulation and prevent complications. Massaging reddened areas may further damage fragile skin. Administering antithrombotics may be necessary for specific conditions but does not directly address tissue perfusion. Feeding a high-carbohydrate diet does not directly improve tissue perfusion in this context.
A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?
- A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
- B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
- C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
- D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately.
Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to maintain the patency of a client's nasogastric tube?
- A. Maintain a constant connection to low-intermittent suction
- B. Irrigate the tube as per physician's order
- C. Suction the mouth and nose every shift
- D. Perform a daily fecal occult blood sample
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the tube as per physician's order. A client with a nasogastric tube is at risk of the tube kinking or clotting off, which can lead to complications such as abdominal distention or vomiting. To ensure the patency of the tube, the nurse should follow the physician's orders and facility policy to irrigate the tube with water or a solution as needed. Maintaining a constant connection to low-intermittent suction (Choice A) is not typically done to maintain tube patency. Suctioning the mouth and nose every shift (Choice C) is not directly related to maintaining nasogastric tube patency. Performing a daily fecal occult blood sample (Choice D) is unrelated to maintaining the patency of a nasogastric tube.
A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Delirium
- B. Muscle rigidity
- C. Hypotension
- D. Pinpoint rash
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.
A patient with bipolar disorder asks the nurse, "Why did I get this illness? I don't want to be sick."? The nurse would best respond with:
- A. People who develop mental illnesses often had a very traumatic childhood experience.
- B. There is some evidence that contracting a virus during childhood can lead to mental disorders.
- C. Sometimes people with mental illness have an overactive immune system.
- D. We don't fully understand the cause, but mental illnesses do seem to run in the family.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is, 'We don't fully understand the cause, but mental illnesses do seem to run in the family.' Current research suggests that while genetics play a role in the development of mental illnesses like bipolar disorder, it is not the sole factor. Environmental influences, life experiences, and other non-genetic factors also contribute significantly to the manifestation of mental disorders. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information that is not supported by current research. Traumatic childhood experiences, contracting a virus during childhood, and an overactive immune system are not established causes of bipolar disorder or mental illnesses in general.