Nokea
Which of the following describes the four-step method of assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation?
- A. It is a problem-focused process of continued nursing care
- B. It is an open-ended process of continued nursing care
- C. It is a circular process of continued nursing care
- D. It is a trial-and-error process of continued nursing care
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'It is a circular process of continued nursing care.' The four-step method of assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation is a continuous and cyclical process in nursing care. Choice A is incorrect because the method is not solely problem-focused but involves multiple steps. Choice B is incorrect as it does not capture the structured nature of the four-step method. Choice D is incorrect as it implies a random approach rather than a systematic and organized process.
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The system used at the division level and forward is comprised of six basic modules. Which module is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses?
- A. Treatment squad
- B. Area support squad
- C. Medical service squad
- D. Forward surgical team
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Forward Surgical Team (FST). The FST is indeed staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses. This team is specifically trained and equipped to provide surgical intervention in austere environments where immediate medical care is needed. Choices A, B, and C do not match the personnel composition described in the question, making them incorrect. The Treatment squad typically focuses on patient care and recovery, the Area support squad provides logistical and administrative support, and the Medical service squad deals with broader medical services beyond surgical interventions.
The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
- B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
- C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
- D. A, B, and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.
The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess the client's vital signs
- B. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle
- C. Begin iced saline lavage
- D. A, B
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's presentation of acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood indicates a potential gastrointestinal bleeding emergency. Assessing the client's vital signs is essential to monitor their hemodynamic status. Starting an IV with an 18-gauge needle is crucial to establish access for potential fluid resuscitation or blood transfusion. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation and could potentially delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the correct interventions for the nurse to implement are to assess the client's vital signs and start an IV, making option D the most appropriate choice. Options A and B are correct because they are essential initial steps in managing gastrointestinal bleeding. Option C is incorrect as iced saline lavage is not indicated and may not address the urgent needs of the client in this critical situation.
A patient with diabetes should be advised to avoid which type of carbohydrate?
- A. Simple carbohydrates
- B. Complex carbohydrates
- C. Fiber-rich carbohydrates
- D. All carbohydrates
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Simple carbohydrates. Simple carbohydrates can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels, which can be problematic for patients with diabetes. These carbohydrates are quickly broken down and absorbed by the body, leading to sharp increases in blood sugar levels. In contrast, complex carbohydrates and fiber-rich carbohydrates are generally better choices for individuals with diabetes because they are digested more slowly, resulting in a more gradual rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, complex carbohydrates, are a better option for diabetic patients compared to simple carbohydrates. Choice C, fiber-rich carbohydrates, can also be beneficial for individuals with diabetes as they help in regulating blood sugar levels. Choice D, all carbohydrates, is too broad of a statement as not all carbohydrates have the same impact on blood glucose levels.
Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Hepatic encephalopathy
- C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
- D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn's disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.