Which of the following drugs causes the most significant inhibition of metabolism of rifabutin?
- A. Zidovudine
- B. Ritonavir
- C. Enfuvirtide
- D. Nevirapine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rifabutin, metabolized by CYP3A4, is affected by inhibitors. Zidovudine, enfuvirtide, and nevirapine don't strongly inhibit CYP3A4. St John's wort induces it, lowering levels. Ritonavir, a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor, significantly slows rifabutin metabolism, raising levels and toxicity risk (e.g., uveitis), the most impactful. This interaction requires dose adjustment, critical in HIV-TB co-treatment.
You may also like to solve these questions
When teaching a client with a prescription for Loperamide for diarrhea, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid activities that require alertness.
- C. Expect abdominal pain and bloating.
- D. Take an additional dose after each loose stool.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
What is true about food and drug precautions? Select all that apply.
- A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs.
- B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions.
- C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself.
- D. When one drug changes the way, another drug affects that drug.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs: Some foods can interact with certain medications, either reducing their effectiveness or causing potentially harmful side effects. Therefore, it may be necessary to limit or avoid specific foods when taking certain medications.
Which of the following does not describe intravenous injection.
- A. tend to produce more immediate adverse reaction.
- B. Too high concentration of the drug is readily obtained
- C. Chance of penetration into an artery instead of vein
- D. Convenient, safe , economica l
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The statement "Convenient, safe, economical" does not accurately describe intravenous injection. Intravenous injection is generally considered to be less convenient compared to other routes of administration due to the need for proper training, sterile technique, and close monitoring during drug administration. While it can be effective in delivering drugs quickly and directly into the bloodstream, it is not always the safest or most economical option. Intravenous administration carries risks such as infection, phlebitis, and possible adverse reactions that need to be carefully monitored. Additionally, the cost of intravenous drug administration tends to be higher due to the need for specialized equipment and trained personnel.
The nurse is managing the care of a group of patients with schizophrenia. The patients are receiving conventional antipsychotic medications. When assessing for anticholinergic side effects, which would the nurse immediately report to the physician?
- A. Acute dystonia
- B. Complaint of a severe headache
- C. Hypertension
- D. Urinary retention
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Conventional antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol) cause anticholinergic effects like urinary retention , a potential emergency risking bladder damage, requiring immediate reporting. Dystonia is extrapyramidal, not anticholinergic. Headache and hypertension aren't typical anticholinergic signs. D prioritizes urgent intervention, making it the correct choice.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication undiluted.
- B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
- C. Administer the medication through a central line.
- D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.