Nokea
Which of the following drugs most likely cause d this hematologic abnormality?
- A. Zidovudine
- B. Acyclovir
- C. Foscarnet
- D. Amantadine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zidovudine. Zidovudine is known to cause hematologic abnormalities, specifically bone marrow suppression leading to anemia and neutropenia. This is due to its myelosuppressive effects. Acyclovir, Foscarnet, and Amantadine do not typically cause such hematologic abnormalities. Acyclovir and Foscarnet are antiviral medications primarily affecting viral replication, while Amantadine is an antiviral agent used for influenza A virus. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and known side effects, Zidovudine is the most likely drug to cause this hematologic abnormality.
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Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting folate synthesis in bacteria and it is advisable to drink 8 ounces of water during this drug’s use because it may cause crystalluria and subsequent kidney stone formation.
- A. Vancomycin
- B. Linezolid
- C. Sulfonamides
- D. Penicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sulfonamides. Sulfonamides inhibit folate synthesis in bacteria by acting as competitive inhibitors of dihydropteroate synthetase. This leads to disruption of nucleic acid and protein synthesis in bacteria. Drinking 8 ounces of water during sulfonamide use helps prevent crystalluria and subsequent kidney stone formation by ensuring adequate hydration to flush out the drug and its metabolites. Vancomycin (A) acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis, Linezolid (B) inhibits protein synthesis, and Penicillin (D) inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis through interference with transpeptidation reactions.
Which of the following antifungal agent act as fungicidal by inhibiting the synthesis of β1,3 glucan used for the disseminated mucocutaneous Candida infections?
- A. Caspofungin
- B. Amphotericin B
- C. Flucytosine
- D. Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Caspofungin is the correct answer as it inhibits the synthesis of β1,3 glucan in fungal cell walls, leading to cell lysis and death.
2. Amphotericin B acts by binding to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, disrupting membrane integrity (fungistatic).
3. Flucytosine is converted to 5-fluorouracil inside fungal cells, inhibiting DNA synthesis (fungistatic).
4. Ketoconazole inhibits ergosterol synthesis, disrupting membrane function (fungistatic).
A nurse is working with a patient who will undergo invasive urologic testing. The nurse has informed the patient that slight hematuria may occur after the testing
- A. The nurse should recommend what action to help resolve hematuria?
- B. Increased fluid intake following the test
- C. Use of an OTC diuretic after the test
- D. Gentle massage of the lower abdomen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, increased fluid intake following the test. Hematuria after urologic testing is common due to irritation of the urinary tract. Increased fluid intake can help dilute urine, reduce irritation, and promote flushing of any potential blood clots. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of hematuria. Option C is incorrect as OTC diuretics may not be necessary and can potentially worsen hematuria. Option D is incorrect as gentle massage of the lower abdomen will not resolve hematuria.
The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is
- A. These findings are most consistent with a(n) ______ herni
- B. Direct inguinal
- C. Scrotal
- D. Femoral
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Direct inguinal hernia. This is because a direct inguinal hernia typically presents as a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring. In this case, the patient being a 50-year-old obese male laborer is at higher risk for a direct inguinal hernia due to increased intra-abdominal pressure. The other choices are incorrect because scrotal hernias typically present in the scrotum, femoral hernias occur below the inguinal ligament, and indirect inguinal hernias present lateral to the pubic tubercle.
A 25 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. Which of the following drug would be most appropriate to prescribe in treating this patient’s illness?
- A. Zanamivir
- B. Lamivudine
- C. Valacyclovir
- D. Cidofovir
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections. It is a prodrug of acyclovir, which inhibits viral replication by targeting the viral DNA polymerase enzyme. Valacyclovir is effective in reducing the severity and duration of genital herpes outbreaks.
A: Zanamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat and prevent influenza virus infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
B: Lamivudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV and hepatitis B infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
D: Cidofovir is an antiviral medication used to treat cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
In summary, Valacyclovir is the most appropriate choice for treating genital herpes simplex virus infection due to its effectiveness in inhibiting viral replication and reducing the severity of outbreaks.