Which of the following emotional manifestations demonstrates an improvement in a 7-month-old infant diagnosed with nonorganic failure to thrive?
- A. Infant has no fear of strangers.
- B. Infant scans environment with wide-eyed gaze.
- C. Infant is passive and sleeps well.
- D. Infant likes to be held and touched.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Infant likes to be held and touched. This demonstrates an improvement in the infant's emotional well-being as it shows an attachment behavior, indicating a sense of security and trust. Infants with nonorganic failure to thrive often exhibit social withdrawal and disinterest in physical contact. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a lack of stranger anxiety, which is not necessarily indicative of improvement in this context. Choice B is incorrect as a wide-eyed gaze could indicate vigilance or anxiety rather than positive emotional development. Choice C is incorrect as passivity and good sleep are not specific indicators of emotional improvement. In summary, choice D is the correct answer as it reflects positive emotional progress in the infant's attachment and responsiveness to touch.
You may also like to solve these questions
At 28 weeks gestation, a woman enters the hospital in preterm labor and receives atocolytic medication to stop labor. Which assessment findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
- A. Fetal heart rate averaging 160 beats/min
- B. Irregular contractions every 15-20 minutes that last 30 seconds before stopping
- C. Maternal temperature 98.8 degrees F, pulse 84, respiratory rate 22, BP 130/70
- D. Ferning pattern of vaginal discharge under a microscope
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Ferning pattern of vaginal discharge under a microscope. This finding indicates rupture of membranes which can lead to infection and necessitates immediate medical attention to prevent harm to the fetus and mother. A: Fetal heart rate of 160 bpm is within normal range. B: Irregular contractions every 15-20 minutes are not indicative of active labor. C: Maternal vital signs are within normal limits and do not pose an immediate threat.
A client is admitted to the hospital for induction of labor. Which are the main indications for labor induction?
- A. Placenta previa and twins
- B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension and postterm fetus
- C. Breech position and prematurity
- D. Cephalopelvic disproportion and fetal distress
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy-induced hypertension and postterm fetus. Labor induction is commonly indicated in cases of pregnancy-induced hypertension to prevent complications such as preeclampsia. Postterm fetus is another common indication to prevent risks associated with a prolonged pregnancy, such as stillbirth. Placenta previa, twins, breech position, prematurity, cephalopelvic disproportion, and fetal distress are not typically primary indications for labor induction. Placenta previa may require a cesarean section, twins may be delivered vaginally or by C-section, breech position may require external cephalic version or C-section, prematurity may necessitate medical management, cephalopelvic disproportion may require a C-section, and fetal distress may necessitate immediate delivery but not necessarily labor induction.
A client who is 37 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine visit. This is the client's first baby and she asks the nurse how she will know when labor begins. Which signs indicate that true labor has begun?
- A. Contractions that are irregular and decrease in intensity when walking
- B. Abdominal pain that starts at the fundus and progresses to the lower back
- C. Increased pressure on the bladder and urinary frequency
- D. Expulsion of pink-tinged mucous and contractions that start in the lower back
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the expulsion of pink-tinged mucous (bloody show) and contractions starting in the lower back are indicative of true labor. This is due to the release of the mucus plug and the initiation of true uterine contractions. Contractions that start in the lower back and progress to the front are characteristic of true labor.
Choice A is incorrect because contractions that are irregular and decrease in intensity with walking are characteristic of false labor (Braxton Hicks contractions).
Choice B is incorrect as abdominal pain starting at the fundus and progressing to the lower back is not a specific sign of true labor.
Choice C is incorrect as increased pressure on the bladder and urinary frequency are common throughout pregnancy and not specific to the onset of true labor.
In summary, the correct answer D provides specific and characteristic signs of true labor, while the other choices do not accurately reflect the onset of true labor.
A nurse has reinforced teaching to the parent of a 9-month-old infant who has redness in the diaper area and inner thighs. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates a correct understanding of this teaching?
- A. I can use a hair dryer on the reddened skin to help with the drying.
- B. I can use powder after diaper changes to absorb excess moisture.
- C. I can use cloth diapers with rubber outer pants until the rash clears.
- D. I can keep the diaper off to expose the skin to air.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Exposing the skin to air helps prevent irritation and promotes healing.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for an amniocentesis. For which of the following reasons should the nurse prepare the client for an ultrasound?
- A. To estimate fetal weight
- B. To locate a pocket of fluid
- C. To determine multiparity
- D. To pre-screen for fetal anomalies
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To locate a pocket of fluid. Before performing an amniocentesis procedure, it is essential to locate a pocket of amniotic fluid to ensure the safety of the fetus during the procedure. This is crucial to avoid accidentally puncturing the fetus or placenta. An ultrasound helps in visualizing the amniotic fluid pocket and guiding the needle insertion accurately.
Incorrect Choices:
A: To estimate fetal weight - Estimating fetal weight is not a primary reason for preparing the client for an ultrasound before amniocentesis.
C: To determine multiparity - Multiparity (number of pregnancies) does not directly impact the need for an ultrasound before an amniocentesis.
D: To pre-screen for fetal anomalies - While ultrasounds can detect anomalies, the primary purpose before an amniocentesis is to locate the amniotic fluid pocket, not screen for anomalies.